SECOND ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 100, Art. 2]

Whether It Is Always Unlawful to Give Money for the Sacraments?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not always unlawful to give

money for the sacraments. Baptism is the door of the sacraments, as

we shall state in the Third Part (Q. 68, A. 6; Q. 73, A. 3). But

seemingly it is lawful in certain cases to give money for Baptism,

for instance if a priest were unwilling to baptize a dying child

without being paid. Therefore it is not always unlawful to buy or

sell the sacraments.

Obj. 2: Further, the greatest of the sacraments is the Eucharist,

which is consecrated in the Mass. But some priests receive a prebend

or money for singing masses. Much more therefore is it lawful to buy

or sell the other sacraments.

Obj. 3: Further, the sacrament of Penance is a necessary sacrament

consisting chiefly in the absolution. But some persons demand money

when absolving from excommunication. Therefore it is not always

unlawful to buy or sell a sacrament.

Obj. 4: Further, custom makes that which otherwise were sinful to be

not sinful; thus Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxii, 47) that "it was

no crime to have several wives, so long as it was the custom." Now it

is the custom in some places to give something in the consecration of

bishops, blessings of abbots, ordinations of the clergy, in exchange

for the chrism, holy oil, and so forth. Therefore it would seem that

it is not unlawful.

Obj. 5: Further, it happens sometimes that someone maliciously

hinders a person from obtaining a bishopric or some like dignity. But

it is lawful for a man to make good his grievance. Therefore it is

lawful, seemingly, in such a case to give money for a bishopric or a

like ecclesiastical dignity.

Obj. 6: Further, marriage is a sacrament. But sometimes money is

given for marriage. Therefore it is lawful to sell a sacrament.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (I, qu. i [*Can. Qui per pecunias]):

"Whosoever shall consecrate anyone for money, let him be cut off from

the priesthood."

_I answer that,_ The sacraments of the New Law are of all things most

spiritual, inasmuch as they are the cause of spiritual grace, on

which no price can be set, and which is essentially incompatible with

a non-gratuitous giving. Now the sacraments are dispensed through the

ministers of the Church, whom the people are bound to support,

according to the words of the Apostle (1 Cor. 9:13), "Know you not,

that they who work in the holy place, eat the things that are of the

holy place; and they that serve the altar, partake with the altar?"

Accordingly we must answer that to receive money for the spiritual

grace of the sacraments, is the sin of simony, which cannot be

excused by any custom whatever, since "custom does not prevail over

natural or divine law" [*Cap. Cum tanto, de Consuetud.; cf. I-II, Q.

97, A. 3]. Now by money we are to understand anything that has a

pecuniary value, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. iv, 1). On the

other hand, to receive anything for the support of those who

administer the sacraments, in accordance with the statutes of the

Church and approved customs, is not simony, nor is it a sin. For it

is received not as a price of goods, but as a payment for their need.

Hence a gloss of Augustine on 1 Tim. 5:17, "Let the priests that rule

well," says: "They should look to the people for a supply to their

need, but to the Lord for the reward of their ministry."

Reply Obj. 1: In a case of necessity anyone may baptize. And since

nowise ought one to sin, if the priest be unwilling to baptize

without being paid, one must act as though there were no priest

available for the baptism. Hence the person who is in charge of the

child can, in such a case, lawfully baptize it, or cause it to be

baptized by anyone else. He could, however, lawfully buy the water

from the priest, because it is merely a bodily element. But if it

were an adult in danger of death that wished to be baptized, and the

priest were unwilling to baptize him without being paid, he ought, if

possible, to be baptized by someone else. And if he is unable to have

recourse to another, he must by no means pay a price for Baptism, and

should rather die without being baptized, because for him the baptism

of desire would supply the lack of the sacrament.

Reply Obj. 2: The priest receives money, not as the price for

consecrating the Eucharist, or for singing the Mass (for this would

be simoniacal), but as payment for his livelihood, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 3: The money exacted of the person absolved is not the

price of his absolution (for this would be simoniacal), but a

punishment of a past crime for which he was excommunicated.

Reply Obj. 4: As stated above, "custom does not prevail over natural

or divine law" whereby simony is forbidden. Wherefore the custom, if

such there be, of demanding anything as the price of a spiritual

thing, with the intention of buying or selling it, is manifestly

simoniacal, especially when the demand is made of a person unwilling

to pay. But if the demand be made in payment of a stipend recognized

by custom it is not simoniacal, provided there be no intention of

buying or selling, but only of doing what is customary, and

especially if the demand be acceded to voluntarily. In all these

cases, however, one must beware of anything having an appearance of

simony or avarice, according to the saying of the Apostle (1 Thess.

5:22), "From all appearance of evil restrain yourselves."

Reply Obj. 5: It would be simoniacal to buy off the opposition of

one's rivals, before acquiring the right to a bishopric or any

dignity or prebend, by election, appointment or presentation, since

this would be to use money as a means of obtaining a spiritual thing.

But it is lawful to use money as a means of removing unjust

opposition, after one has already acquired that right.

Reply Obj. 6: Some [*Innocent IV on Cap. Cum in Ecclesia, de Simonia]

say that it is lawful to give money for Matrimony because no grace is

conferred thereby. But this is not altogether true, as we shall state

in the Third Part of the work [* Supp., Q. 42, A. 3]. Wherefore we

must reply that Matrimony is not only a sacrament of the Church, but

also an office of nature. Consequently it is lawful to give money for

Matrimony considered as an office of nature, but unlawful if it be

considered as a sacrament of the Church. Hence, according to the law

[*Cap. Cum in Ecclesia, de Simonia], it is forbidden to demand

anything for the Nuptial Blessing.

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Summa Theologica, Part II-II (Secunda Secundae) Translated by Fathers of the English Dominican Province · 第 650 / 1128 题