Whether It Is Lawful for a Man to Possess a Thing As His Own?
Objection 1: It would seem unlawful for a man to possess a thing as
his own. For whatever is contrary to the natural law is unlawful. Now
according to the natural law all things are common property: and the
possession of property is contrary to this community of goods.
Therefore it is unlawful for any man to appropriate any external
thing to himself.
Obj. 2: Further, Basil in expounding the words of the rich man quoted
above (A. 1, Obj. 2), says: "The rich who deem as their own property
the common goods they have seized upon, are like to those who by
going beforehand to the play prevent others from coming, and
appropriate to themselves what is intended for common use." Now it
would be unlawful to prevent others from obtaining possession of
common goods. Therefore it is unlawful to appropriate to oneself what
belongs to the community.
Obj. 3: Further, Ambrose says [*Serm. lxiv, de temp.], and his words
are quoted in the Decretals [*Dist. xlvii., Can. Sicut hi.]: "Let no
man call his own that which is common property": and by "common" he
means external things, as is clear from the context. Therefore it
seems unlawful for a man to appropriate an external thing to himself.
_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (De Haeres., haer. 40): "The
'Apostolici' are those who with extreme arrogance have given
themselves that name, because they do not admit into their communion
persons who are married or possess anything of their own, such as
both monks and clerics who in considerable number are to be found in
the Catholic Church." Now the reason why these people are heretics
was because severing themselves from the Church, they think that
those who enjoy the use of the above things, which they themselves
lack, have no hope of salvation. Therefore it is erroneous to
maintain that it is unlawful for a man to possess property.
_I answer that,_ Two things are competent to man in respect of
exterior things. One is the power to procure and dispense them, and
in this regard it is lawful for man to possess property. Moreover
this is necessary to human life for three reasons. First because
every man is more careful to procure what is for himself alone than
that which is common to many or to all: since each one would shirk
the labor and leave to another that which concerns the community, as
happens where there is a great number of servants. Secondly, because
human affairs are conducted in more orderly fashion if each man is
charged with taking care of some particular thing himself, whereas
there would be confusion if everyone had to look after any one thing
indeterminately. Thirdly, because a more peaceful state is ensured to
man if each one is contented with his own. Hence it is to be observed
that quarrels arise more frequently where there is no division of the
things possessed.
The second thing that is competent to man with regard to external
things is their use. In this respect man ought to possess external
things, not as his own, but as common, so that, to wit, he is ready
to communicate them to others in their need. Hence the Apostle says
(1 Tim. 6:17, 18): "Charge the rich of this world . . . to give
easily, to communicate to others," etc.
Reply Obj. 1: Community of goods is ascribed to the natural law, not
that the natural law dictates that all things should be possessed in
common and that nothing should be possessed as one's own: but because
the division of possessions is not according to the natural law, but
rather arose from human agreement which belongs to positive law, as
stated above (Q. 57, AA. 2, 3). Hence the ownership of possessions is
not contrary to the natural law, but an addition thereto devised by
human reason.
Reply Obj. 2: A man would not act unlawfully if by going beforehand
to the play he prepared the way for others: but he acts unlawfully if
by so doing he hinders others from going. In like manner a rich man
does not act unlawfully if he anticipates someone in taking
possession of something which at first was common property, and gives
others a share: but he sins if he excludes others indiscriminately
from using it. Hence Basil says (Hom. in Luc. xii, 18): "Why are you
rich while another is poor, unless it be that you may have the merit
of a good stewardship, and he the reward of patience?"
Reply Obj. 3: When Ambrose says: "Let no man call his own that which
is common," he is speaking of ownership as regards use, wherefore he
adds: "He who spends too much is a robber."
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