II.

THE Archdeacon then proceeds to attack the following statement: _There

is no subject, and can be none, concerning which any human being is

under any obligation to believe without evidence_.

One would suppose that it would be impossible to formulate an objection

to this statement. What is or is not evidence, depends upon the mind

to which it is presented. There is no possible "insinuation" in this

statement, one way or the other. There is nothing sinister in it, any

more than there would be in the statement that twice five are ten. How

did it happen to occur to the Archdeacon that when I spoke of believing

without evidence, I referred to all people who believe in the existence

of a God, and that I intended to say "that one-third of the world's

inhabitants had embraced the faith of Christians without evidence"?

Certain things may convince one mind and utterly fail to convince

others. Undoubtedly the persons who have believed in the dogmas of

Christianity have had what was sufficient evidence for them. All I said

was, that "there is no subject, and can be none, concerning which any

human being is under any obligation to believe without evidence." Does

the Archdeacon insist that there is an obligation resting on any human

mind to believe without evidence? Is he willing to go a step further and

say that there is an obligation resting upon the minds of men to believe

contrary to evidence? If one is under obligation to believe without

evidence, it is just as reasonable to say that he is under obligation to

believe in spite of evidence. What does the word "evidence" mean? A man

in whose honesty I have great confidence, tells me that he saw a dead

man raised to life. I do not believe him. Why? His statement is not

evidence to my mind. Why? Because it contradicts all of my experience,

and, as I believe, the experience of the intelligent world.

No one pretends that "one-third of the world's inhabitants have

embraced the faith of Christians without evidence"--that is, that all

Christians have embraced the faith without evidence. In the olden time,

when hundreds of thousands of men were given their choice between being

murdered and baptized, they generally accepted baptism--probably they

accepted Christianity without critically examining the evidence.

Is it historically absurd that millions of people have believed in

systems of religion without evidence? Thousands of millions have

believed that Mohammed was a prophet of God. And not only so, but have

believed in his miraculous power. Did they believe without evidence? Is

it historically absurd to say that Mohammedanism is based upon mistake?

What shall we say of the followers of Buddha, who far outnumber the

followers of Christ? Have they believed without evidence? And is it

historically absurd to say that our ancestors of a few hundred years ago

were as credulous as the disciples of Buddha? Is it not true that the

same gentlemen who believed thoroughly in all the miracles of the

New Testament also believed the world to be flat, and were perfectly

satisfied that the sun made its daily journey around the earth? Did they

have any evidence? Is it historically absurd to say that they believed

without evidence?

The Works of Robert G. Ingersoll, Vol. 06 (of 12) Dresden Edition—Discussions · 第 52 / 64 题