SECOND ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 104, Art. 2]

Whether the Judicial Precepts Were Figurative?

Objection 1: It would seem that the judicial precepts were not

figurative. Because it seems proper to the ceremonial precepts to be

instituted as figures of something else. Therefore, if the judicial

precepts are figurative, there will be no difference between the

judicial and ceremonial precepts.

Obj. 2: Further, just as certain judicial precepts were given to the

Jewish people, so also were some given to other heathen peoples. But

the judicial precepts given to other peoples were not figurative, but

stated what had to be done. Therefore it seems that neither were the

judicial precepts of the Old Law figures of anything.

Obj. 3: Further, those things which relate to the divine worship had

to be taught under certain figures, because the things of God are

above our reason, as stated above (Q. 101, A. 2, ad 2). But things

concerning our neighbor are not above our reason. Therefore the

judicial precepts which direct us in relation to our neighbor should

not have been figurative.

_On the contrary,_ The judicial precepts are expounded both in the

allegorical and in the moral sense (Ex. 21).

_I answer that,_ A precept may be figurative in two ways. First,

primarily and in itself: because, to wit, it is instituted

principally that it may be the figure of something. In this way the

ceremonial precepts are figurative; since they were instituted for

the very purpose that they might foreshadow something relating to the

worship of God and the mystery of Christ. But some precepts are

figurative, not primarily and in themselves, but consequently. In

this way the judicial precepts of the Old Law are figurative. For

they were not instituted for the purpose of being figurative, but in

order that they might regulate the state of that people according to

justice and equity. Nevertheless they did foreshadow something

consequently: since, to wit, the entire state of that people, who

were directed by these precepts, was figurative, according to 1 Cor.

10:11: "All . . . things happened to them in figure."

Reply Obj. 1: The ceremonial precepts are not figurative in the same

way as the judicial precepts, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: The Jewish people were chosen by God that Christ might

be born of them. Consequently the entire state of that people had to

be prophetic and figurative, as Augustine states (Contra Faust. xxii,

24). For this reason even the judicial precepts that were given to

this people were more figurative that those which were given to other

nations. Thus, too, the wars and deeds of this people are expounded

in the mystical sense: but not the wars and deeds of the Assyrians or

Romans, although the latter are more famous in the eyes of men.

Reply Obj. 3: In this people the direction of man in regard to his

neighbor, considered in itself, was subject to reason. But in so far

as it was referred to the worship of God, it was above reason: and in

this respect it was figurative.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 674 / 746 题