FOURTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 58, Art. 4]

Whether There Can Be Moral Without Intellectual Virtue?

Objection 1: It would seem that moral can be without intellectual

virtue. Because moral virtue, as Cicero says (De Invent. Rhet. ii) is

"a habit like a second nature in accord with reason." Now though

nature may be in accord with some sovereign reason that moves it,

there is no need for that reason to be united to nature in the same

subject, as is evident of natural things devoid of knowledge.

Therefore in a man there may be a moral virtue like a second nature,

inclining him to consent to his reason, without his reason being

perfected by an intellectual virtue.

Obj. 2: Further, by means of intellectual virtue man obtains perfect

use of reason. But it happens at times that men are virtuous and

acceptable to God, without being vigorous in the use of reason.

Therefore it seems that moral virtue can be without intellectual.

Obj. 3: Further moral virtue makes us inclined to do good works. But

some, without depending on the judgment of reason, have a natural

inclination to do good works. Therefore moral virtues can be without

intellectual virtues.

_On the contrary,_ Gregory says (Moral. xxii) that "the other

virtues, unless we do prudently what we desire to do, cannot be real

virtues." But prudence is an intellectual virtue, as stated above (Q.

57, A. 5). Therefore moral virtues cannot be without intellectual

virtues.

_I answer that,_ Moral virtue can be without some of the intellectual

virtues, viz. wisdom, science, and art; but not without understanding

and prudence. Moral virtue cannot be without prudence, because it is

a habit of choosing, i.e. making us choose well. Now in order that a

choice be good, two things are required. First, that the intention be

directed to a due end; and this is done by moral virtue, which

inclines the appetitive faculty to the good that is in accord with

reason, which is a due end. Secondly, that man take rightly those

things which have reference to the end: and this he cannot do unless

his reason counsel, judge and command aright, which is the function

of prudence and the virtues annexed to it, as stated above (Q. 57,

AA. 5, 6). Wherefore there can be no moral virtue without prudence:

and consequently neither can there be without understanding. For it

is by the virtue of understanding that we know self-evident

principles both in speculative and in practical matters. Consequently

just as right reason in speculative matters, in so far as it proceeds

from naturally known principles, presupposes the understanding of

those principles, so also does prudence, which is the right reason

about things to be done.

Reply Obj. 1: The inclination of nature in things devoid of reason is

without choice: wherefore such an inclination does not of necessity

require reason. But the inclination of moral virtue is with choice:

and consequently in order that it may be perfect it requires that

reason be perfected by intellectual virtue.

Reply Obj. 2: A man may be virtuous without having full use of reason

as to everything, provided he have it with regard to those things

which have to be done virtuously. In this way all virtuous men have

full use of reason. Hence those who seem to be simple, through lack

of worldly cunning, may possibly be prudent, according to Matt.

10:16: "Be ye therefore prudent (Douay: 'wise') as serpents, and

simple as doves."

Reply Obj. 3: The natural inclination to a good of virtue is a kind

of beginning of virtue, but is not perfect virtue. For the stronger

this inclination is, the more perilous may it prove to be, unless it

be accompanied by right reason, which rectifies the choice of fitting

means towards the due end. Thus if a running horse be blind, the

faster it runs the more heavily will it fall, and the more grievously

will it be hurt. And consequently, although moral virtue be not right

reason, as Socrates held, yet not only is it "according to right

reason," in so far as it inclines man to that which is, according to

right reason, as the Platonists maintained [*Cf. Plato, Meno xli.];

but also it needs to be "joined with right reason," as Aristotle

declares (Ethic. vi, 13).

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 380 / 746 题