FIFTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 58, Art. 5]

Whether There Can Be Intellectual Without Moral Virtue?

Objection 1: It would seem that there can be intellectual without

moral virtue. Because perfection of what precedes does not depend on

the perfection of what follows. Now reason precedes and moves the

sensitive appetite. Therefore intellectual virtue, which is a

perfection of the reason, does not depend on moral virtue, which is a

perfection of the appetitive faculty; and can be without it.

Obj. 2: Further, morals are the matter of prudence, even as things

makeable are the matter of art. Now art can be without its proper

matter, as a smith without iron. Therefore prudence can be without

the moral virtues, although of all the intellectual virtues, it seems

most akin to the moral virtues.

Obj. 3: Further, prudence is "a virtue whereby we are of good

counsel" (Ethic. vi, 9). Now many are of good counsel without having

the moral virtues. Therefore prudence can be without a moral virtue.

_On the contrary,_ To wish to do evil is directly opposed to moral

virtue; and yet it is not opposed to anything that can be without

moral virtue. Now it is contrary to prudence "to sin willingly"

(Ethic. vi, 5). Therefore prudence cannot be without moral virtue.

_I answer that,_ Other intellectual virtues can, but prudence cannot,

be without moral virtue. The reason for this is that prudence is the

right reason about things to be done (and this, not merely in

general, but also in particular); about which things actions are. Now

right reason demands principles from which reason proceeds to argue.

And when reason argues about particular cases, it needs not only

universal but also particular principles. As to universal principles

of action, man is rightly disposed by the natural understanding of

principles, whereby he understands that he should do no evil; or

again by some practical science. But this is not enough in order that

man may reason aright about particular cases. For it happens

sometimes that the aforesaid universal principle, known by means of

understanding or science, is destroyed in a particular case by a

passion: thus to one who is swayed by concupiscence, when he is

overcome thereby, the object of his desire seems good, although it is

opposed to the universal judgment of his reason. Consequently, as by

the habit of natural understanding or of science, man is made to be

rightly disposed in regard to the universal principles of action; so,

in order that he be rightly disposed with regard to the particular

principles of action, viz. the ends, he needs to be perfected by

certain habits, whereby it becomes connatural, as it were, to man to

judge aright to the end. This is done by moral virtue: for the

virtuous man judges aright of the end of virtue, because "such a man

is, such does the end seem to him" (Ethic. iii, 5). Consequently the

right reason about things to be done, viz. prudence, requires man to

have moral virtue.

Reply Obj. 1: Reason, as apprehending the end, precedes the appetite

for the end: but appetite for the end precedes the reason, as arguing

about the choice of the means, which is the concern of prudence. Even

so, in speculative matters the understanding of principles is the

foundation on which the syllogism of the reason is based.

Reply Obj. 2: It does not depend on the disposition of our appetite

whether we judge well or ill of the principles of art, as it does,

when we judge of the end which is the principle in moral matters: in

the former case our judgment depends on reason alone. Hence art does

not require a virtue perfecting the appetite, as prudence does.

Reply Obj. 3: Prudence not only helps us to be of good counsel, but

also to judge and command well. This is not possible unless the

impediment of the passions, destroying the judgment and command of

prudence, be removed; and this is done by moral virtue.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 381 / 746 题