Whether John's Baptism Should Have Ceased After Christ Was Baptized?
Objection 1: It would seem that John's baptism should have ceased
after Christ was baptized. For it is written (John 1:31): "That He
may be made manifest in Israel, therefore am I come baptizing in
water." But when Christ had been baptized, He was made sufficiently
manifest, both by the testimony of John and by the dove coming down
upon Him, and again by the voice of the Father bearing witness to
Him. Therefore it seems that John's baptism should not have endured
thereafter.
Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. iv): "Christ was
baptized, and John's baptism ceased to avail." Therefore it seems
that, after Christ's baptism, John should not have continued to
baptize.
Obj. 3: Further, John's baptism prepared the way for Christ's. But
Christ's baptism began as soon as He had been baptized; because "by
the touch of His most pure flesh He endowed the waters with a
regenerating virtue," as Bede asserts (Mag. Sent. iv, 3). Therefore
it seems that John's baptism ceased when Christ had been baptized.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (John 3:22, 23): "Jesus . . . came
into the land of Judea . . . and baptized: and John also was
baptizing." But Christ did not baptize before being baptized.
Therefore it seems that John continued to baptize after Christ had
been baptized.
_I answer that,_ It was not fitting for the baptism of John to cease
when Christ had been baptized. First, because, as Chrysostom says
(Hom. xxix in Joan.), "if John had ceased to baptize" when Christ had
been baptized, "men would think that he was moved by jealousy or
anger." Secondly, if he had ceased to baptize when Christ baptized,
"he would have given His disciples a motive for yet greater envy."
Thirdly, because, by continuing to baptize, "he sent his hearers to
Christ" (Hom. xxix in Joan.). Fourthly, because, as Bede [*Scot.
Erig. Comment. in Joan.] says, "there still remained a shadow of the
Old Law: nor should the forerunner withdraw until the truth be made
manifest."
Reply Obj. 1: When Christ was baptized, He was not as yet fully
manifested: consequently there was still need for John to continue
baptizing.
Reply Obj. 2: The baptism of John ceased after Christ had been
baptized, not immediately, but when the former was cast into prison.
Thus Chrysostom says (Hom. xxix in Joan.): "I consider that John's
death was allowed to take place, and that Christ's preaching began in
a great measure after John had died, so that the undivided allegiance
of the multitude was transferred to Christ, and there was no further
motive for the divergence of opinions concerning both of them."
Reply Obj. 3: John's baptism prepared the way not only for Christ to
be baptized, but also for others to approach to Christ's baptism: and
this did not take place as soon as Christ was baptized.
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