Whether Christ Alone Should Have Been Baptized with the Baptism of
John?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ alone should have been
baptized with the baptism of John. For, as stated above (A. 1), "the
reason why John baptized was that Christ might receive baptism," as
Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. xiii). But what is proper to
Christ should not be applicable to others. Therefore no others should
have received that baptism.
Obj. 2: Further, whoever is baptized either receives something from
the baptism or confers something on the baptism. But no one could
receive anything from the baptism of John, because thereby grace was
not conferred, as stated above (A. 3). On the other hand, no one
could confer anything on baptism save Christ, who "sanctified the
waters by the touch of His most pure flesh" [*Mag. Sent. iv, 3].
Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized with
the baptism of John.
Obj. 3: Further, if others were baptized with that baptism, this was
only in order that they might be prepared for the baptism of Christ:
and thus it would seem fitting that the baptism of John should be
conferred on all, old and young, Gentile and Jew, just as the baptism
of Christ. But we do not read that either children or Gentiles were
baptized by the latter; for it is written (Mk. 1:5) that "there went
out to him . . . all they of Jerusalem, and were baptized by him."
Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized by
John.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Luke 3:21): "It came to pass, when
all the people were baptized, that Jesus also being baptized and
praying, heaven was opened."
_I answer that,_ For two reasons it behooved others besides Christ to
be baptized with the baptism of John. First, as Augustine says (Super
Joan., Tract. iv, v), "if Christ alone had been baptized with the
baptism of John, some would have said that John's baptism, with which
Christ was baptized, was more excellent than that of Christ, with
which others are baptized."
Secondly, because, as above stated, it behooved others to be prepared
by John's baptism for the baptism of Christ.
Reply Obj. 1: The baptism of John was instituted not only that Christ
might be baptized, but also for other reasons, as stated above (A.
1). And yet, even if it were instituted merely in order that Christ
might be baptized therewith, it was still necessary for others to
receive this baptism, in order to avoid the objection mentioned above.
Reply Obj. 2: Others who approached to be baptized by John could not,
indeed, confer anything on his baptism: yet neither did they receive
anything therefrom, save only the sign of penance.
Reply Obj. 3: This was the baptism of "penance," for which children
were not suited; wherefore they were not baptized therewith. But to
bring the nations into the way of salvation was reserved to Christ
alone, who is the "expectation of the nations," as we read Gen.
49:10. Indeed, Christ forbade the apostles to preach the Gospel to
the Gentiles before His Passion and Resurrection. Much less fitting,
therefore, was it for the Gentiles to be baptized by John.
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