Whether Grace Was Given in the Baptism of John?
Objection 1: It would seem that grace was given in the baptism of
John. For it is written (Mk. 1:4): "John was in the desert baptizing
and preaching the baptism of penance unto remission of sins." But
penance and remission of sins are the effect of grace. Therefore the
baptism of John conferred grace.
Obj. 2: Further, those who were about to be baptized by John
"confessed their sins," as related Matt. 3:6 and Mk. 1:5. But the
confession of sins is ordered to their remission, which is effected
by grace. Therefore grace was conferred in the baptism of John.
Obj. 3: Further, the baptism of John was more akin than circumcision
to the baptism of Christ. But original sin was remitted through
circumcision: because, as Bede says (Hom. x in Circumcis.), "under
the Law, circumcision brought the same saving aid to heal the wound
of original sin as baptism is wont to bring now that grace is
revealed." Much more, therefore, did the baptism of John effect the
remission of sins, which cannot be accomplished without grace.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Matt. 3:11): "I indeed baptize you
in water unto penance." Which words Gregory thus expounds in a
certain homily (Hom. vii in Evang.): "John baptized, not in the
Spirit, but in water: because he could not forgive sins." But grace
is given by the Holy Ghost, and by means thereof sins are taken away.
Therefore the baptism of John did not confer grace.
_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 2, ad 2), the whole teaching and
work of John was in preparation for Christ: just as it is the duty of
the servant and of the under-craftsman to prepare the matter for the
form which is accomplished by the head-craftsman. Now grace was to be
conferred on men through Christ, according to John 1:17: "Grace and
truth came through Jesus Christ." Therefore the baptism of John did
not confer grace, but only prepared the way for grace; and this in
three ways: first, by John's teaching, which led men to faith in
Christ; secondly, by accustoming men to the rite of Christ's baptism;
thirdly, by penance, preparing men to receive the effect of Christ's
baptism.
Reply Obj. 1: In these words, as Bede says (on Mk. 1:4), a twofold
baptism of penance may be understood. One is that which John
conferred by baptizing, which is called "a baptism of penance," etc.,
by reason of its inducing men to do penance, and of its being a kind
of protestation by which men avowed their purpose of doing penance.
The other is the baptism of Christ, by which sins are remitted, and
which John could not give, but only preach, saying: "He will baptize
you in the Holy Ghost."
Or it may be said that he preached the "baptism of penance," i.e.
which induced men to do penance, which penance leads men on to "the
remission of sins."
Or again, it may be said with Jerome [*Another author on Mk. 1 (inter
op. Hier.)] that "by the baptism of Christ grace is given, by which
sins are remitted gratis; and that what is accomplished by the
bridegroom is begun by the bridesman," i.e. by John. Consequently it
is said that "he baptized and preached the baptism of penance unto
remission of sins," not as though he accomplished this himself, but
because he began it by preparing the way for it.
Reply Obj. 2: That confession of sins was not made unto the remission
of sins, to be realized immediately through the baptism of John, but
to be obtained through subsequent penance and through the baptism of
Christ, for which that penance was a preparation.
Reply Obj. 3: Circumcision was instituted as a remedy for original
sin. Whereas the baptism of John was not instituted for this purpose,
but was merely in preparation for the baptism of Christ, as stated
above; whereas the sacraments attain their effect through the force
of their institution.
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