Whether the Baptism of John Was from God?
Objection 1: It would seem that the baptism of John was not from God.
For nothing sacramental that is from God is named after a mere man:
thus the baptism of the New Law is not named after Peter or Paul, but
after Christ. But that baptism is named after John, according to
Matt. 21:25: "The baptism of John . . . was it from heaven or from
men?" Therefore the baptism of John was not from God.
Obj. 2: Further, every doctrine that proceeds from God anew is
confirmed by some signs: thus the Lord (Ex. 4) gave Moses the power
of working signs; and it is written (Heb. 2:3, 4) that our faith
"having begun to be declared by the Lord, was confirmed unto us by
them that heard Him, God also bearing them witness by signs and
wonders." But it is written of John the Baptist (John 10:41) that
"John did no sign." Therefore it seems that the baptism wherewith he
baptized was not from God.
Obj. 3: Further, those sacraments which are instituted by God are
contained in certain precepts of Holy Scripture. But there is no
precept of Holy Writ commanding the baptism of John. Therefore it
seems that it was not from God.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (John 1:33): "He who sent me to
baptize with water said to me: 'He upon whom thou shalt see the
Spirit,'" etc.
_I answer that,_ Two things may be considered in the baptism of
John--namely, the rite of baptism and the effect of baptism. The rite
of baptism was not from men, but from God, who by an interior
revelation of the Holy Ghost sent John to baptize. But the effect of
that baptism was from man, because it effected nothing that man could
not accomplish. Wherefore it was not from God alone, except in as far
as God works in man.
Reply Obj. 1: By the baptism of the New Law men are baptized inwardly
by the Holy Ghost, and this is accomplished by God alone. But by the
baptism of John the body alone was cleansed by the water. Wherefore
it is written (Matt. 3:11): "I baptize you in water; but . . . He
shall baptize you in the Holy Ghost." For this reason the baptism of
John was named after him, because it effected nothing that he did not
accomplish. But the baptism of the New Law is not named after the
minister thereof, because he does not accomplish its principal
effect, which is the inward cleansing.
Reply Obj. 2: The whole teaching and work of John was ordered unto
Christ, who, by many miracles confirmed both His own teaching and
that of John. But if John had worked signs, men would have paid equal
attention to John and to Christ. Wherefore, in order that men might
pay greater attention to Christ, it was not given to John to work a
sign. Yet when the Jews asked him why he baptized, he confirmed his
office by the authority of Scripture, saying: "I am the voice of one
crying in the wilderness," etc. as related, John 1:23 (cf. Isa.
40:3). Moreover, the very austerity of his life was a commendation of
his office, because, as Chrysostom says, commenting on Matthew (Hom.
x in Matth.), "it was wonderful to witness such endurance in a human
body."
Reply Obj. 3: The baptism of John was intended by God to last only
for a short time, for the reasons given above (A. 1). Therefore it
was not the subject of a general commandment set down in Sacred Writ,
but of a certain interior revelation of the Holy Ghost, as stated
above.
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