Whether It Was Fitting That John Should Baptize?
Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting that John should
baptize. For every sacramental rite belongs to some law. But John did
not introduce a new law. Therefore it was not fitting that he should
introduce the new rite of baptism.
Obj. 2: Further, John "was sent by God . . . for a witness" (John
1:6, 7) as a prophet; according to Luke 1:76: "Thou, child, shalt be
called the prophet of the Highest." But the prophets who lived before
Christ did not introduce any new rite, but persuaded men to observe
the rites of the Law. as is clearly stated Malachi 4:4: "Remember the
law of Moses My servant." Therefore neither should John have
introduced a new rite of baptism.
Obj. 3: Further, when there is too much of anything, nothing should
be added to it. But the Jews observed a superfluity of baptisms; for
it is written (Mk. 7:3, 4) that "the Pharisees and all the Jews eat
not without often washing their hands . . . and when they come from
the market, unless they be washed, they eat not; and many other
things there are that have been delivered to them to observe, the
washings of cups and of pots, and of brazen vessels, and of beds."
Therefore it was unfitting that John should baptize.
On the contrary is the authority of Scripture (Matt. 3:5, 6), which,
after stating the holiness of John, adds many went out to him, "and
were baptized in the Jordan."
_I answer that,_ It was fitting for John to baptize, for four
reasons: first, it was necessary for Christ to be baptized by John,
in order that He might sanctify baptism; as Augustine observes, super
Joan. (Tract. xiii in Joan.).
Secondly, that Christ might be manifested. Whence John himself says
(John 1:31): "That He," i.e. Christ, "may be made manifest in Israel,
therefore am I come baptizing with water." For he announced Christ to
the crowds that gathered around him; which was thus done much more
easily than if he had gone in search of each individual, as
Chrysostom observes, commenting on St. John (Hom. x in Matth.).
Thirdly, that by his baptism he might accustom men to the baptism of
Christ; wherefore Gregory says in a homily (Hom. vii in Evang.) that
therefore did John baptize, "that, being consistent with his office
of precursor, as he had preceded our Lord in birth, so he might also
by baptizing precede Him who was about to baptize."
Fourthly, that by persuading men to do penance, he might prepare men
to receive worthily the baptism of Christ. Wherefore Bede [*Cf. Scot.
Erig. in Joan. iii, 24] says that "the baptism of John was as
profitable before the baptism of Christ, as instruction in the faith
profits the catechumens not yet baptized. For just as he preached
penance, and foretold the baptism of Christ, and drew men to the
knowledge of the Truth that hath appeared to the world, so do the
ministers of the Church, after instructing men, chide them for their
sins, and lastly promise them forgiveness in the baptism of Christ."
Reply Obj. 1: The baptism of John was not a sacrament properly so
called (_per se_), but a kind of sacramental, preparatory to the
baptism of Christ. Consequently, in a way, it belonged to the law of
Christ, but not to the law of Moses.
Reply Obj. 2: John was not only a prophet, but "more than a prophet,"
as stated Matt. 11:9: for he was the term of the Law and the
beginning of the Gospel. Therefore it was in his province to lead
men, both by word and deed, to the law of Christ rather than to the
observance of the Old Law.
Reply Obj. 3: Those baptisms of the Pharisees were vain, being
ordered merely unto carnal cleanliness. But the baptism of John was
ordered unto spiritual cleanliness, since it led men to do penance,
as stated above.
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