FOURTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 18, Art. 4]

Whether There Was Free-will in Christ?

Objection 1: It would seem that in Christ there was no free-will. For

Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 14) that _gnome_, i.e. opinion,

thinking or cogitation, and _proairesis_, i.e. choice, "cannot

possibly be attributed to our Lord, if we wish to speak with

propriety." But in the things of faith especially we must speak with

propriety. Therefore there was no choice in Christ and consequently

no free-will, of which choice is the act.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 2) that choice is

"a desire of something after taking counsel." Now counsel does not

appear to be in Christ, because we do not take counsel concerning

such things as we are certain of. But Christ was certain of

everything. Hence there was no counsel and consequently no free-will

in Christ.

Obj. 3: Further, free-will is indifferent. But Christ's will was

determined to good, since He could not sin; as stated above (Q. 15,

AA. 1, 2). Hence there was no free-will in Christ.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Isa. 7:15): "He shall eat butter

and honey, that He may know to refuse the evil and to choose the

good," which is an act of the free-will. Therefore there was

free-will in Christ.

_I answer that,_ As was said above (A. 3), there was a twofold act of

the will in Christ; one whereby He was drawn to anything willed in

itself, which implies the nature of an end; the other whereby His

will was drawn to anything willed on account of its being ordained to

another--which pertains to the nature of means. Now, as the

Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 2) choice differs from will in this,

that will of itself regards the end, while choice regards the means.

And thus simple will is the same as the "will as nature"; but choice

is the same as the "will as reason," and is the proper act of

free-will, as was said in the First Part (Q. 83, A. 3). Hence, since

"will as reason" is placed in Christ, we must also place choice, and

consequently free-will, whose act is choice, as was said in the First

Part (Q. 83, A. 3; I-II, Q. 13, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene excludes choice from Christ, in so far as he

considers that doubt is implied in the word choice. Nevertheless

doubt is not necessary to choice, since it belongs even to God

Himself to choose, according to Eph. 1:4: "He chose us in Him before

the foundation of the world," although in God there is no doubt. Yet

doubt is accidental to choice when it is in an ignorant nature. We

may also say the same of whatever else is mentioned in the passage

quoted.

Reply Obj. 2: Choice presupposes counsel; yet it follows counsel only

as determined by judgment. For what we judge to be done, we choose,

after the inquiry of counsel, as is stated (Ethic. iii, 2, 3). Hence

if anything is judged necessary to be done, without any preceding

doubt or inquiry, this suffices for choice. Therefore it is plain

that doubt or inquiry belong to choice not essentially, but only when

it is in an ignorant nature.

Reply Obj. 3: The will of Christ, though determined to good, is not

determined to this or that good. Hence it pertains to Christ, even as

to the blessed, to choose with a free-will confirmed in good.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 144 / 654 题