On page 21 St. John xiv. 9 is incorrectly cited, and it is difficult to
know the exact drift of the writer.
I object to the statement that "in all His relations to us and commands
to us," etc. (See, _e.g._, St. Matt. xxviii. 18-20.)
As to His not knowing whether His prayer could be heard, see St. John
xi. 41, 42.
I think it is incorrect to say that our Lord Himself _used_ the prayer
He gave us, at least in its entirety as it stands.
Pages 20, 21: Mr. Ruskin seems to me to draw most strongly the very
comparison to which he objects. Surely the kingdom of Christ _is_ the
kingdom of His Father. (Rev. xi. 15, xii. 10; Eph. v. 5.) Does not an
unwillingness to accept the true divinity of our Lord underlie this
passage?