SECOND ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 169, Art. 2]

Whether the Adornment of Women Is Devoid of Mortal Sin?

Objection 1: It would seem that the adornment of women is not devoid

of mortal sin. For whatever is contrary to a precept of the Divine

law is a mortal sin. Now the adornment of women is contrary to a

precept of the Divine law; for it is written (1 Pet. 3:3): "Whose,"

namely women's, "adorning, let it not be the outward plaiting of the

hair, or the wearing of gold, or the putting on of apparel."

Wherefore a gloss of Cyprian says: "Those who are clothed in silk and

purple cannot sincerely put on Christ: those who are bedecked with

gold and pearls and trinkets have forfeited the adornments of mind

and body." Now this is not done without a mortal sin. Therefore the

adornment of women cannot be devoid of mortal sin.

Obj. 2: Further, Cyprian says (De Habit. Virg.): "I hold that not

only virgins and widows, but also wives and all women without

exception, should be admonished that nowise should they deface God's

work and fabric, the clay that He has fashioned, with the aid of

yellow pigments, black powders or rouge, or by applying any dye that

alters the natural features." And afterwards he adds: "They lay hands

on God, when they strive to reform what He has formed. This is an

assault on the Divine handiwork, a distortion of the truth. Thou

shalt not be able to see God, having no longer the eyes that God

made, but those the devil has unmade; with him shalt thou burn on

whose account thou art bedecked." But this is not due except to

mortal sin. Therefore the adornment of women is not devoid of mortal

sin.

Obj. 3: Further, just as it is unbecoming for a woman to wear man's

clothes, so is it unbecoming for her to adorn herself inordinately.

Now the former is a sin, for it is written (Deut. 22:5): "A woman

shall not be clothed with man's apparel, neither shall a man use

woman's apparel." Therefore it seems that also the excessive

adornment of women is a mortal sin.

Obj. 4: _On the contrary,_ If this were true it would seem that the

makers of these means of adornment sin mortally.

_I answer that,_ As regards the adornment of women, we must bear in

mind the general statements made above (A. 1) concerning outward

apparel, and also something special, namely that a woman's apparel

may incite men to lust, according to Prov. 7:10, "Behold a woman

meeteth him in harlot's attire, prepared to deceive souls."

Nevertheless a woman may use means to please her husband, lest

through despising her he fall into adultery. Hence it is written (1

Cor. 7:34) that the woman "that is married thinketh on the things of

the world, how she may please her husband." Wherefore if a married

woman adorn herself in order to please her husband she can do this

without sin.

But those women who have no husband nor wish to have one, or who are

in a state of life inconsistent with marriage, cannot without sin

desire to give lustful pleasure to those men who see them, because

this is to incite them to sin. And if indeed they adorn themselves

with this intention of provoking others to lust, they sin mortally;

whereas if they do so from frivolity, or from vanity for the sake of

ostentation, it is not always mortal, but sometimes venial. And the

same applies to men in this respect. Hence Augustine says (Ep. ccxlv

ad Possid.): "I do not wish you to be hasty in forbidding the wearing

of gold or costly attire except in the case of those who being

neither married nor wishful to marry, should think how they may

please God: whereas the others think on the things of the world,

either husbands how they may please their wives, or wives how they

may please their husbands, except that it is unbecoming for women

though married to uncover their hair, since the Apostle commands them

to cover the head." Yet in this case some might be excused from sin,

when they do this not through vanity but on account of some contrary

custom: although such a custom is not to be commended.

Reply Obj. 1: As a gloss says on this passage, "The wives of those

who were in distress despised their husbands, and decked themselves

that they might please other men": and the Apostle forbids this.

Cyprian is speaking in the same sense; yet he does not forbid married

women to adorn themselves in order to please their husbands, lest the

latter be afforded an occasion of sin with other women. Hence the

Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:9): "Women . . . in ornate [Douay: 'decent']

apparel, adorning themselves with modesty and sobriety, not with

plaited hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly attire": whence we are

given to understand that women are not forbidden to adorn themselves

soberly and moderately but to do so excessively, shamelessly, and

immodestly.

Reply Obj. 2: Cyprian is speaking of women painting themselves: this

is a kind of falsification, which cannot be devoid of sin. Wherefore

Augustine says (Ep. ccxlv ad Possid.): "To dye oneself with paints in

order to have a rosier or a paler complexion is a lying counterfeit.

I doubt whether even their husbands are willing to be deceived by it,

by whom alone" (i.e. the husbands) "are they to be permitted, but not

ordered, to adorn themselves." However, such painting does not always

involve a mortal sin, but only when it is done for the sake of

sensuous pleasure or in contempt of God, and it is to like cases that

Cyprian refers.

It must, however, be observed that it is one thing to counterfeit a

beauty one has not, and another to hide a disfigurement arising from

some cause such as sickness or the like. For this is lawful, since

according to the Apostle (1 Cor. 12:23), "such as we think to be the

less honorable members of the body, about these we put more abundant

honor."

Reply Obj. 3: As stated in the foregoing Article, outward apparel

should be consistent with the estate of the person, according to the

general custom. Hence it is in itself sinful for a woman to wear

man's clothes, or vice versa; especially since this may be a cause of

sensuous pleasure; and it is expressly forbidden in the Law (Deut.

22) because the Gentiles used to practice this change of attire for

the purpose of idolatrous superstition. Nevertheless this may be done

sometimes without sin on account of some necessity, either in order

to hide oneself from enemies, or through lack of other clothes, or

for some similar motive.

Reply Obj. 4: In the case of an art directed to the production of

goods which men cannot use without sin, it follows that the workmen

sin in making such things, as directly affording others an occasion

of sin; for instance, if a man were to make idols or anything

pertaining to idolatrous worship. But in the case of an art the

products of which may be employed by man either for a good or for an

evil use, such as swords, arrows, and the like, the practice of such

an art is not sinful. These alone should be called arts; wherefore

Chrysostom says [*Hom. xlix super Matth.]: "The name of art should be

applied to those only which contribute towards and produce

necessaries and mainstays of life." In the case of an art that

produces things which for the most part some people put to an evil

use, although such arts are not unlawful in themselves, nevertheless,

according to the teaching of Plato, they should be extirpated from

the State by the governing authority. Accordingly, since women may

lawfully adorn themselves, whether to maintain the fitness of their

estate, or even by adding something thereto, in order to please their

husbands, it follows that those who make such means of adornment do

not sin in the practice of their art, except perhaps by inventing

means that are superfluous and fantastic. Hence Chrysostom says

(Super Matth.) that "even the shoemakers' and clothiers' arts stand

in need of restraint, for they have lent their art to lust, by

abusing its needs, and debasing art by art."

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Summa Theologica, Part II-II (Secunda Secundae) Translated by Fathers of the English Dominican Province · 第 1000 / 1128 题