FIRST ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 155, Art. 1]

Whether Continence Is a Virtue?

Objection 1: It would seem that continence is not a virtue. For

species and genus are not co-ordinate members of the same division.

But continence is co-ordinated with virtue, according to the

Philosopher (Ethic. vii, 1, 9). Therefore continence is not a virtue.

Obj. 2: Further, no one sins by using a virtue, since, according to

Augustine (De Lib. Arb. ii, 18, 19), "a virtue is a thing that no one

makes ill use of." Yet one may sin by containing oneself: for

instance, if one desire to do a good, and contain oneself from doing

it. Therefore continence is not a virtue.

Obj. 3: Further, no virtue withdraws man from that which is lawful,

but only from unlawful things: for a gloss on Gal. 5:23, "Faith,

modesty," etc., says that by continence a man refrains even from

things that are lawful. Therefore continence is not a virtue.

_On the contrary,_ Every praiseworthy habit would seem to be a

virtue. Now such is continence, for Andronicus says [*De Affectibus]

that "continence is a habit unconquered by pleasure." Therefore

continence is a virtue.

_I answer that,_ The word "continence" is taken by various people in

two ways. For some understand continence to denote abstention from

all venereal pleasure: thus the Apostle joins continence to chastity

(Gal. 5:23). In this sense perfect continence is virginity in the

first place, and widowhood in the second. Wherefore the same applies

to continence understood thus, as to virginity which we have stated

above (Q. 152, A. 3) to be a virtue. Others, however, understand

continence as signifying that whereby a man resists evil desires,

which in him are vehement. In this sense the Philosopher takes

continence (Ethic. vii, 7), and thus also it is used in the

Conferences of the Fathers (Collat. xii, 10, 11). In this way

continence has something of the nature of a virtue, in so far, to

wit, as the reason stands firm in opposition to the passions, lest it

be led astray by them: yet it does not attain to the perfect nature

of a moral virtue, by which even the sensitive appetite is subject to

reason so that vehement passions contrary to reason do not arise in

the sensitive appetite. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. iv, 9)

that "continence is not a virtue but a mixture," inasmuch as it has

something of virtue, and somewhat falls short of virtue.

If, however, we take virtue in a broad sense, for any principle of

commendable actions, we may say that continence is a virtue.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher includes continence in the same

division with virtue in so far as the former falls short of virtue.

Reply Obj. 2: Properly speaking, man is that which is according to

reason. Wherefore from the very fact that a man holds (_tenet se_) to

that which is in accord with reason, he is said to contain himself.

Now whatever pertains to perversion of reason is not according to

reason. Hence he alone is truly said to be continent who stands to

that which is in accord with right reason, and not to that which is

in accord with perverse reason. Now evil desires are opposed to right

reason, even as good desires are opposed to perverse reason.

Wherefore he is properly and truly continent who holds to right

reason, by abstaining from evil desires, and not he who holds to

perverse reason, by abstaining from good desires: indeed, the latter

should rather be said to be obstinate in evil.

Reply Obj. 3: The gloss quoted takes continence in the first sense,

as denoting a perfect virtue, which refrains not merely from unlawful

goods, but also from certain lawful things that are lesser goods, in

order to give its whole attention to the more perfect goods.

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Summa Theologica, Part II-II (Secunda Secundae) Translated by Fathers of the English Dominican Province · 第 931 / 1128 题