SECOND ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 153, Art. 2]

Whether No Venereal Act Can Be Without Sin?

Objection 1: It would seem that no venereal act can be without sin.

For nothing but sin would seem to hinder virtue. Now every venereal

act is a great hindrance to virtue. For Augustine says (Soliloq. i,

10): "I consider that nothing so casts down the manly mind from its

height as the fondling of a woman, and those bodily contacts."

Therefore, seemingly, no venereal act is without sin.

Obj. 2: Further, any excess that makes one forsake the good of reason

is sinful, because virtue is corrupted by "excess" and "deficiency"

as stated in _Ethic._ ii, 2. Now in every venereal act there is

excess of pleasure, since it so absorbs the mind, that "it is

incompatible with the act of understanding," as the Philosopher

observes (Ethic. vii, 11); and as Jerome [*Origen, Hom. vi in Num.;

Cf. Jerome, Ep. cxxiii ad Ageruch.] states, rendered the hearts of

the prophets, for the moment, insensible to the spirit of prophecy.

Therefore no venereal act can be without sin.

Obj. 3: Further, the cause is more powerful than its effect. Now

original sin is transmitted to children by concupiscence, without

which no venereal act is possible, as Augustine declares (De Nup. et

Concup. i, 24). Therefore no venereal act can be without sin.

_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (De Bono Conjug. xxv): "This is a

sufficient answer to heretics, if only they will understand that no

sin is committed in that which is against neither nature, nor morals,

nor a commandment": and he refers to the act of sexual intercourse

between the patriarchs of old and their several wives. Therefore not

every venereal act is a sin.

_I answer that,_ A sin, in human acts, is that which is against the

order of reason. Now the order of reason consists in its ordering

everything to its end in a fitting manner. Wherefore it is no sin if

one, by the dictate of reason, makes use of certain things in a

fitting manner and order for the end to which they are adapted,

provided this end be something truly good. Now just as the

preservation of the bodily nature of one individual is a true good,

so, too, is the preservation of the nature of the human species a

very great good. And just as the use of food is directed to the

preservation of life in the individual, so is the use of venereal

acts directed to the preservation of the whole human race. Hence

Augustine says (De Bono Conjug. xvi): "What food is to a man's well

being, such is sexual intercourse to the welfare of the whole human

race." Wherefore just as the use of food can be without sin, if it be

taken in due manner and order, as required for the welfare of the

body, so also the use of venereal acts can be without sin, provided

they be performed in due manner and order, in keeping with the end of

human procreation.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing may be a hindrance to virtue in two ways.

First, as regards the ordinary degree of virtue, and as to this

nothing but sin is an obstacle to virtue. Secondly, as regards the

perfect degree of virtue, and as to this virtue may be hindered by

that which is not a sin, but a lesser good. In this way sexual

intercourse casts down the mind not from virtue, but from the height,

i.e. the perfection of virtue. Hence Augustine says (De Bono Conjug.

viii): "Just as that was good which Martha did when busy about

serving holy men, yet better still that which Mary did in hearing the

word of God: so, too, we praise the good of Susanna's conjugal

chastity, yet we prefer the good of the widow Anna, and much more

that of the Virgin Mary."

Reply Obj. 2: As stated above (Q. 152, A. 2, ad 2; I-II, Q. 64, A.

2), the mean of virtue depends not on quantity but on conformity with

right reason: and consequently the exceeding pleasure attaching to a

venereal act directed according to reason, is not opposed to the mean

of virtue. Moreover, virtue is not concerned with the amount of

pleasure experienced by the external sense, as this depends on the

disposition of the body; what matters is how much the interior

appetite is affected by that pleasure. Nor does it follow that the

act in question is contrary to virtue, from the fact that the free

act of reason in considering spiritual things is incompatible with

the aforesaid pleasure. For it is not contrary to virtue, if the act

of reason be sometimes interrupted for something that is done in

accordance with reason, else it would be against virtue for a person

to set himself to sleep. That venereal concupiscence and pleasure are

not subject to the command and moderation of reason, is due to the

punishment of the first sin, inasmuch as the reason, for rebelling

against God, deserved that its body should rebel against it, as

Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiii, 13).

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiii, 13), "the child,

shackled with original sin, is born of fleshly concupiscence (which

is not imputed as sin to the regenerate) as of a daughter of sin."

Hence it does not follow that the act in question is a sin, but that

it contains something penal resulting from the first sin.

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Summa Theologica, Part II-II (Secunda Secundae) Translated by Fathers of the English Dominican Province · 第 913 / 1128 题