FIRST ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 120, Art. 1]

Whether "Epikeia" [*_Epieikeia_] Is a Virtue?

Objection 1: It seems that _epikeia_ is not a virtue. For no virtue

does away with another virtue. Yet _epikeia_ does away with another

virtue, since it sets aside that which is just according to law, and

seemingly is opposed to severity. Therefore _epikeia_ is not a virtue.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Vera Relig. xxxi): "With regard

to these earthly laws, although men pass judgment on them when they

make them, yet, when once they are made and established, the judge

must pronounce judgment not on them but according to them." But

seemingly _epikeia_ pronounces judgment on the law, when it deems

that the law should not be observed in some particular case.

Therefore _epikeia_ is a vice rather than a virtue.

Obj. 3: Further, apparently it belongs to _epikeia_ to consider the

intention of the lawgiver, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. v, 10).

But it belongs to the sovereign alone to interpret the intention of

the lawgiver, wherefore the Emperor says in the _Codex of Laws and

Constitutions,_ under _Law_ i: "It is fitting and lawful that We

alone should interpret between equity and law." Therefore the act of

_epikeia_ is unlawful: and consequently _epikeia_ is not a virtue.

_On the contrary,_ The Philosopher (Ethic. v, 10) states it to be a

virtue.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (I-II, Q. 96, A. 6), when we were

treating of laws, since human actions, with which laws are concerned,

are composed of contingent singulars and are innumerable in their

diversity, it was not possible to lay down rules of law that would

apply to every single case. Legislators in framing laws attend to

what commonly happens: although if the law be applied to certain

cases it will frustrate the equality of justice and be injurious to

the common good, which the law has in view. Thus the law requires

deposits to be restored, because in the majority of cases this is

just. Yet it happens sometimes to be injurious--for instance, if a

madman were to put his sword in deposit, and demand its delivery

while in a state of madness, or if a man were to seek the return of

his deposit in order to fight against his country. In these and like

cases it is bad to follow the law, and it is good to set aside the

letter of the law and to follow the dictates of justice and the

common good. This is the object of _epikeia_ which we call equity.

Therefore it is evident that _epikeia_ is a virtue.

Reply Obj. 1: _Epikeia_ does not set aside that which is just in

itself but that which is just as by law established. Nor is it

opposed to severity, which follows the letter of the law when it

ought to be followed. To follow the letter of the law when it ought

not to be followed is sinful. Hence it is written in the _Codex of

Laws and Constitutions_ under _Law_ v: "Without doubt he transgresses

the law who by adhering to the letter of the law strives to defeat

the intention of the lawgiver."

Reply Obj. 2: It would be passing judgment on a law to say that it

was not well made; but to say that the letter of the law is not to be

observed in some particular case is passing judgment not on the law,

but on some particular contingency.

Reply Obj. 3: Interpretation is admissible in doubtful cases where it

is not allowed to set aside the letter of the law without the

interpretation of the sovereign. But when the case is manifest there

is need, not of interpretation, but of execution.

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Summa Theologica, Part II-II (Secunda Secundae) Translated by Fathers of the English Dominican Province · 第 747 / 1128 题