Whether It Is Lawful for Parents to Strike Their Children, or
Masters Their Slaves?
Objection 1: It would seem unlawful for parents to strike their
children, or masters their slaves. For the Apostle says (Eph. 6:4):
"You, fathers, provoke not your children to anger"; and further on
(Eph. 9:6): "And you, masters, do the same thing to your slaves
[Vulg.: 'to them'] forbearing threatenings." Now some are provoked to
anger by blows, and become more troublesome when threatened.
Therefore neither should parents strike their children, nor masters
their slaves.
Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. x, 9) that "a father's
words are admonitory and not coercive." Now blows are a kind of
coercion. Therefore it is unlawful for parents to strike their
children.
Obj. 3: Further, everyone is allowed to impart correction, for this
belongs to the spiritual almsdeeds, as stated above (Q. 32, A. 2).
If, therefore, it is lawful for parents to strike their children for
the sake of correction, for the same reason it will be lawful for any
person to strike anyone, which is clearly false. Therefore the same
conclusion follows.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Prov. 13:24): "He that spareth the
rod hateth his son," and further on (Prov. 23:13): "Withhold not
correction from a child, for if thou strike him with the rod, he
shall not die. Thou shalt beat him with the rod, and deliver his soul
from hell." Again it is written (Ecclus. 33:28): "Torture and fetters
are for a malicious slave."
_I answer that,_ Harm is done a body by striking it, yet not so as
when it is maimed: since maiming destroys the body's integrity, while
a blow merely affects the sense with pain, wherefore it causes much
less harm than cutting off a member. Now it is unlawful to do a
person a harm, except by way of punishment in the cause of justice.
Again, no man justly punishes another, except one who is subject to
his jurisdiction. Therefore it is not lawful for a man to strike
another, unless he have some power over the one whom he strikes. And
since the child is subject to the power of the parent, and the slave
to the power of his master, a parent can lawfully strike his child,
and a master his slave that instruction may be enforced by correction.
Reply Obj. 1: Since anger is a desire for vengeance, it is aroused
chiefly when a man deems himself unjustly injured, as the Philosopher
states (Rhet. ii). Hence when parents are forbidden to provoke their
children to anger, they are not prohibited from striking their
children for the purpose of correction, but from inflicting blows on
them without moderation. The command that masters should forbear from
threatening their slaves may be understood in two ways. First that
they should be slow to threaten, and this pertains to the moderation
of correction; secondly, that they should not always carry out their
threats, that is that they should sometimes by a merciful forgiveness
temper the judgment whereby they threatened punishment.
Reply Obj. 2: The greater power should exercise the greater coercion.
Now just as a city is a perfect community, so the governor of a city
has perfect coercive power: wherefore he can inflict irreparable
punishments such as death and mutilation. On the other hand the
father and the master who preside over the family household, which is
an imperfect community, have imperfect coercive power, which is
exercised by inflicting lesser punishments, for instance by blows,
which do not inflict irreparable harm.
Reply Obj. 3: It is lawful for anyone to impart correction to a
willing subject. But to impart it to an unwilling subject belongs to
those only who have charge over him. To this pertains chastisement by
blows.
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