HOW CAN MOVEMENT BE IN TIME, IF CHANGE BE OUTSIDE OF TIME?

16. It may be objected that movement is an imperfect

actualization.[272] In that case actualization should be given

the first rank; and under that genus would follow the species of

movement, with the quality of imperfection, by saying that movement

is an actualization, and adding (the specific difference) that it is

imperfect. To say that movement is an imperfect actualization does

not deprive it of being an actualization, but implies that though it

be actualization, there is in it succession, not to arrive at being

actualization, (which it is already), but to accomplish something from

which it is yet entirely distinct. Then (when that goal is reached),

it is not the movement that becomes perfect, but the thing which was

the goal. For instance, walking is walking from the very first step;

but if there be a mile to go, and the mile be not yet finished, what

is lacking of the mile is not lacking to the walking or to movement

(taken absolutely), but to that particular walk. For the walk was

walking and movement from the very first step; consequently, he who

is moving has already moved, and he who cuts has already cut.[273]

Just as actualization, movement has no need of time; it needs time

only to become such an action. If then actualization be outside of

time, movement, taken absolutely, must also be outside of time. The

objection that movement is in time because it implies continuity

(proves too much; for in that case) intuition itself, if prolonged,

would also imply continuity, and therefore would be in time. Reasoning

by induction, it may be seen, 1, that one can always distinguish

parts in any kind of movement; 2, that it would be impossible to

determine when and since when the movement began, or to assign the

definite point of departure; 3, that it is always possible to divide

movement by following it up to its origin, so that in this manner

movement that has just begun would find itself to have begun since

infinite time, and, 4, that movement would be infinite in regard to

its beginning. The fact is that the Aristotelians distinguish movement

from actualization; they affirm that actualization is outside of time,

but that time is necessary to movement; not indeed to some particular

movement, but to movement in itself, because, according to their

views, it is a quantity. Nevertheless, they themselves acknowledge

that movement is a quantity only by accident, as, for instance, when

it is a daily movement, or when it has some particular duration. Just

as actualization is outside of time, nothing hinders movement from

having begun outside of time, and time from being connected with

movement only because the movement has a certain duration. Indeed, it

is generally granted that changes occur outside of time, for it is

usual to say, The changes occur either suddenly or successively. Now

if change can occur outside of time, why should it not be so also with

movement? We here speak of change, and not of "having changed;" for

change does not necessarily have to be accomplished (while "having

changed" signifies an accomplished fact, and consequently implies the

notion of time).

ACTION AND EXPERIENCING MAY BE SUBSUMED UNDER MOVEMENT, BUT CANNOT BE

CONSIDERED AS SEPARATE CATEGORIES.

17. It may be objected that actualization and movement do not, by

themselves, form a genus, but belong to the genus of relation, because

actualization exists through the power of something active, and

movement exists by the power of some motor, as such. We might answer

that relative conceptions are produced by habituation (the manner of

being) even of things, and not only through the relation established

between them by the mind. As the habituation is a mode of "hypostatic"

existence, although it be the "thing of something else," or although

it refer to something else,[274] it nevertheless possesses its nature

before being a relation. Now this actualization, this movement, this

habituation, which is the "thing of some other thing" nevertheless

possesses the property of existing and of being conceived by itself

before being a relation; otherwise, all things would be relative

conceptions; for there is nothing, not excluding the soul herself,

which does not bear some relation to something else. Moreover, why are

"action" and "acting" not relatives? For they necessarily are either a

movement or an actualization. If the Aristotelians consider "action" a

relative, and make a genus of "acting," why then do they not also place

"movement" among the relatives, and make a genus of "moving?" They

might, indeed, have subsumed under the genus "movement" the two species

"action" and "reaction" (or, "suffering"); but they have no right to

make two distinct genera of "acting" and "reacting," as they generally

do.

ON ARISTOTELIAN PRINCIPLES, EVEN INTELLECTION WOULD BE MOVEMENT OR

ACTUALIZATION.

18. We must further examine if the Aristotelians have the right

to say that acting contains both actualizations and movements,

the actualizations producing themselves instantaneously, and the

movements successively; as, for instance, dividing implies time.

Or will they say that all actualizations are movements, or, at

least, are accompanied by movements? Will they trace all actions to

"experiencing" (or, reactions), or will they acknowledge absolute

actions, like walking or speaking? Or will they distinguish all actions

that relate to "experiencing" as movements, and all absolute actions

as actualizations? Or will they place actions of both kinds among

movements, and among actualizations? They would no doubt classify

walking, which is an absolute thing, as movement; and thinking, which

is a verb without passive voice, as an actualization.[275] Otherwise

the Aristotelians will be obliged to insist that there is nothing

active in walking or thinking. But if walking and thinking do not

belong to the category of acting, it will be necessary to explain to

what they do belong. Will it be said that thinking relates to the

thinkable (the intelligible), as intellection does,[276] because

sensation relates to the sense-object? If sensation be related to

the sense-object, why do they not equally relate "sensing" (feeling)

to the sense-object? Sensation, relating to something else, has a

relation with that thing; but, besides that relation, it has the

property of being an "action" or an "experience" (or, reaction). If

therefore reaction (or, suffering), besides belonging to something

else, or depending on something else, has the property of itself

being something, like actualization, then walking, besides belonging

to something else (to the feet), and depending on something else (on

the motive power), nevertheless by itself possesses the property of

being movement. In this case, it will have to be recognized that

intellection, besides being a relation, by itself also is a movement or

an actualization.

Plotinos: Complete Works, v. 3 In Chronological Order, Grouped in Four Periods · 第 264 / 442 题