IF TIME BE A QUANTITY; WHY SHOULD "TIME WHEN" FORM A SEPARATE CATEGORY?

If to-morrow, to-day, and yesterday, as well as other similar divisions

of time, be parts of time, why should they not be classed in the same

classification as time itself, along with the ideas "it has been,"

"it is," and "it will be?" As they are kinds of time, it seems proper

that they should be classified along with time itself. Now time is

part of quantity. What then is the use of another category? If the

Aristotelians say that not only "it has been" and "it will be" are

time-concepts, but "yesterday" and "formerly," which are varieties

of "there has been" are also time-concepts (for these terms are

subordinated to "there has been"), that it is not only "now" that is

time, but that "when" is such also, they will be forced to answer as

follows: First, if "when" be time, time exists; then, as "yesterday"

is past time, it will be something composite, if the past be something

else than time; we will have to erect two categories, not merely a

simple category. For instance, they say both that "when" is in time,

without being time, and say that "when" is that which is in time. An

example of this would be to say that Socrates existed "formerly,"

whereby Socrates would really be outside of (present) time. Therefore

they are no longer expressing something single. But what is meant by

Socrates "being in time," and that some fact "is in time?" Does it mean

that they are "part of time?" If, in saying "a part of time," and "so

far as it is a part of time," the Aristotelians believe that they are

not speaking of time absolutely, but only of a past part of time, they

are really expressing several things. For this "part," so far as it is

a part, is by them referred to something; and for them the past will be

some thing added (to Time), or it will become identified with "there

has been," which is a kind of time. But if they say that there is a

difference, because "there has been" is indeterminate, while "formerly"

and "yesterday" are determinate, we shall be deciding something about

"there has been;" then "yesterday" will be the determination of "there

has been," so that "yesterday" will be determined time. Now, that

is a quantity of time; so that if time be a quantity, each one of

these two things will be a determined quantity. But, if, when they

say "yesterday" they mean thereby that such an event has happened in

a determined past time, they are still expressing several things.

Therefore, if some new category is to be introduced whenever one thing

acts in another, as here happened of what occurred in time, we might

have to introduce many additional categories, for in a different thing

the action is different. This will, besides, become clearer in what is

to follow on the category of place.

Plotinos: Complete Works, v. 3 In Chronological Order, Grouped in Four Periods · 第 260 / 442 题