DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE MAN KNOWN BY THE SENSES AND THE INTELLIGIBLE MAN.

But there are some (Aristotelians or Peripatetics) who might think

that the intelligible Man and the sense-man form but one. Let us first

discuss this point. Does the sense-man have a being different from the

soul which produces him, and makes him live and reason? Is he the soul

that is disposed in some special manner? Is he the soul that uses the

body in some particular way? If man be a reasonable living organism,

and if the latter be composed of soul and body, this definition of man

will not be identical with that of the soul. If the man be defined as

being the composite of the reasonable soul and the body, how can he be

an immortal hypostatic existence? This definition suits the sense-man

only from the moment that the union of the soul and the body has

occurred; it expresses what will be, instead of setting forth what we

call the Man-in-himself; rather than being a real determination of his

characteristics, it would be only a description which would not reveal

the original being. Instead of defining form engaged in matter, it

indicates what is the composite of soul and body, after the union has

occurred. In this case, we do not yet know what is man considered in

his being, which is intelligible. To the claim that the definition of

sense-things should express something composite, it might be answered,

that we do acknowledge that we must not determine the consistence of

each thing. Now if it be absolutely necessary to define the forms

engaged in matter, we must also define the being that constitutes the

man; that is necessary especially for those (Peripateticians) who, by a

definition, mean a statement of a being's original "characteristics."

Plotinos: Complete Works, v. 3 In Chronological Order, Grouped in Four Periods · 第 86 / 442 题