11. Some tribes in India chop victims up.

12. The Kudulu allow to a victim all the revels, women and all, of the

Sacæan mock-king, and then cut a hole in him, and smear his blood over

an idol. This is sacrifice, not capital punishment.

13. The Khonds slew their revered and god-like victim in a variety of

ways, strangling him in a tree, _burning_, and chopping up, that his

flesh might be sown on the fields. The head, bowels, and bones were

_burned_.

Such are the examples of a real human victim slain for the good of

the crops. In six out of fourteen cases the victim's ashes, blood, or

flesh is used magically to fertilise the fields, and probably this is

done in several other instances. In seven cases burning occurs. In two

sacrifice to a god or idol occurs. In one only is the mode of death a

recognised form of capital punishment.

Therefore Mr. Frazer does not seem to me to be justified in taking for

and describing as 'sacrifice' the capital punishment inflicted at the

Sacæa on a mock-king who notoriously was a criminal condemned to death,

and who was hanged, not sacrificed.

To be sure Mr. Frazer tries to turn this point, and how? Perhaps

ancient kings of Lydia were once burned alive on pyres, 'as living

embodiments of their god.' For the Lydian, like the Macedonian and many

other royal houses, claimed descent from Heracles, who, being on fire

already under the shirt of Nessus, homeopathically burned himself.

Crœsus, defeated, was about to die by fire, but not out of his own

head. Cyrus was going to burn him alive, like Jeanne d'Arc, Cranmer,

Wishart, and others. This cruel infliction by a foreign enemy hardly

proves a Lydian custom, nor are Lydians exactly Babylonians. Again,

if an old Prussian king 'wished to leave a good name behind him,' he

burned himself before a holy oak. 'Crummies is not a Prussian,' nor

were the kings of Babylon. Once more Movers thought that the 'divine

pair who figured by deputy' at the Sacæa were Semiramis and Sandan

or Sardanapalus. (Which divine pair, the king's proxy and one of the

king's concubines, or the Tammuz man and the sacred harlot?) Sandan was

thought to be Heracles by the Greeks, and his effigy was perhaps burned

on a pyre at his festival in Tarsus. Now the Persians, according to

Agathias, worshipped Sandes (Sandan), and perhaps the Babylonians did

so also, though really that agreeable Byzantine minor poet, Agathias,

cannot be called a good witness. Next, K. O. Müller thinks that Sandan

(Sandes) may have been _burned_ in a mystery play in Nineveh, Müller

giving free licence to his fancy, as he admits. Movers, too, thought

that 'at the Sacæa the Zoganes represented a god, and paired with a

woman who personated a goddess.'[11] And Movers thinks that the Sacæan

victim was originally burned.[12]

For these 'exquisite reasons,' that the Lydian monarchs claimed descent

from Heracles, who was burned, that Cyrus wanted to burn Crœsus

alive, that old Prussian kings who wished to leave a good name burned

themselves, that Movers thought that Sandan or Sardanapalus might

have figured at the Sacæa as Zoganes, that Agathias mentioned Sandes

as a Babylonian deity, and that Movers thinks that the man who acted

the god was burned, Mr. Frazer suggests that perhaps the mock-king of

the Sacæa _was_ burned, once upon a time.[13] But we only know that

he was scourged and hanged. So perhaps, Mr. Frazer suggests, he was

_both_ scourged, hanged, and burned afterwards, or perhaps hanging or

crucifixion 'may have been a later mitigation of his sufferings'--a

pretty mitigation! And why was flogging added?[14] One had liefer

be burned, like a god and a king, than be first whipped and then

crucified, as a malefactor of the lowest and most servile kind, losing,

too, the necessary suggestion of sacrifice and divinity implied in

being burned. Besides, apart from this theory of a cruel and debasing

'mitigation,' there is no evidence at all except what proves that the

mock-king at the Sacæa was first stripped of his royal robes, then

whipped, then hanged. If he dies as god or king, why is he stripped of

his royal robes? The man was hanged, was capitally punished (which as a

condemned criminal he richly deserved), and 'there is an end on't,' as

Dr. Johnson rudely remarked. Now 'we must not forget' that Mr. Frazer

has announced this I sacrifice 'of a divine king as his theory, but we

need not, I may even say must not, accept the theory. Because, first,

Mr. Frazer gives many examples of persons believed each to contain a

god, either temporarily or permanently.[15] But in not one single case

is the person said to be killed for the benefit of the god whom he

contains.

Secondly, there was historically no sacrifice in the case of the Sacæan

mock-king.

The mock-king, then, if he has any divinity, has it not as a sacrifice,

for he is not sacrificed; nor as representing a king who incarnates

a god, for no kings or others thought to incarnate gods, whether

temporarily or permanently, are proved to be slain for the benefit of

that god. Nor are any kings who are actually slain, slain by hanging.

The death of a man, as a god, belongs, if to anything, to quite

another festival, that of Tammuz or Adonis, and to quite another set of

ideas. We have no proof indeed that a man was ever hanged or sacrificed

as an embodiment of Adonis or Tammuz. But Mr. Frazer's theory of the

reason for the Crucifixion on Calvary demands the _sacrifice_ of a

human victim, who is, _ex officio_, a god, is sacrificed in that

character, and is feigned to rise again. He must also be royal, to

account for the scarlet robe and crown of thorns of the great victim.

Magic and Religion · 第 26 / 74 题