We may now proceed with Mr. Mill's criticism. He says:--

"Absolute, in the sense in which, it stands related to Infinite,

means (conformably to its etymology) that which is finished or

completed. There are some things of which the utmost ideal amount

is a limited quantity, though a quantity never actually reached....

We may speak of absolutely, but not of infinitely, pure water. The

purity of water is not a fact of which, whatever degree we suppose

attained, there remains a greater beyond. It has an absolute limit:

it is capable of being finished or complete, in thought, if not in

reality."--(P. 34.)

This criticism is either incorrect or _nihil ad rem_. If meant as a

statement of Hamilton's use of the term, it is incorrect: _absolute_, in

Hamilton's philosophy, does not mean simply "completed," but "out of

relation as completed;" _i.e._, self-existent in its completeness, and

not implying the existence of anything else. If meant in any other sense

than Hamilton's, it is irrelevant. Can Mr. Mill really have believed that

Schelling thought it necessary to invent an intellectual intuition out of

time and out of consciousness, in order to contemplate "an ideal limited

quantity," such as the complete purity of water?

The Philosophy of the Conditioned · 第 8 / 12 题