FIFTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 114, Art. 5]

Whether a Man May Merit for Himself the First Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that a man may merit for himself the first

grace, because, as Augustine says (Ep. clxxxvi), "faith merits

justification." Now a man is justified by the first grace. Therefore

a man may merit the first grace.

Obj. 2: Further, God gives grace only to the worthy. Now, no one is

said to be worthy of some good, unless he has merited it condignly.

Therefore we may merit the first grace condignly.

Obj. 3: Further, with men we may merit a gift already received. Thus

if a man receives a horse from his master, he merits it by a good use

of it in his master's service. Now God is much more bountiful than

man. Much more, therefore, may a man, by subsequent works, merit the

first grace already received from God.

_On the contrary,_ The nature of grace is repugnant to reward of

works, according to Rom. 4:4: "Now to him that worketh, the reward is

not reckoned according to grace but according to debt." Now a man

merits what is reckoned to him according to debt, as the reward of

his works. Hence a man may not merit the first grace.

_I answer that,_ The gift of grace may be considered in two ways:

first in the nature of a gratuitous gift, and thus it is manifest

that all merit is repugnant to grace, since as the Apostle says (Rom.

11:6), "if by grace, it is not now by works." Secondly, it may be

considered as regards the nature of the thing given, and thus, also,

it cannot come under the merit of him who has not grace, both because

it exceeds the proportion of nature, and because previous to grace a

man in the state of sin has an obstacle to his meriting grace, viz.

sin. But when anyone has grace, the grace already possessed cannot

come under merit, since reward is the term of the work, but grace is

the principle of all our good works, as stated above (Q. 109). But of

anyone merits a further gratuitous gift by virtue of the preceding

grace, it would not be the first grace. Hence it is manifest that no

one can merit for himself the first grace.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (Retract. i, 23), he was deceived on

this point for a time, believing the beginning of faith to be from

us, and its consummation to be granted us by God; and this he here

retracts. And seemingly it is in this sense that he speaks of faith

as meriting justification. But if we suppose, as indeed it is a truth

of faith, that the beginning of faith is in us from God, the first

act must flow from grace; and thus it cannot be meritorious of the

first grace. Therefore man is justified by faith, not as though man,

by believing, were to merit justification, but that, he believes,

whilst he is being justified; inasmuch as a movement of faith is

required for the justification of the ungodly, as stated above (Q.

113, A. 4).

Reply Obj. 2: God gives grace to none but to the worthy, not that

they were previously worthy, but that by His grace He makes them

worthy, Who alone "can make him clean that is conceived of unclean

seed" (Job 14:4).

Reply Obj. 3: Man's every good work proceeds from the first grace as

from its principle; but not from any gift of man. Consequently, there

is no comparison between gifts of grace and gifts of men.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 741 / 746 题