Whether the Old Law Was Good?
Objection 1: It would seem that the Old Law was not good. For it is
written (Ezech. 20:25): "I gave them statutes that were not good, and
judgments in which they shall not live." But a law is not said to be
good except on account of the goodness of the precepts that it
contains. Therefore the Old Law was not good.
Obj. 2: Further, it belongs to the goodness of a law that it conduce
to the common welfare, as Isidore says (Etym. v, 3). But the Old Law
was not salutary; rather was it deadly and hurtful. For the Apostle
says (Rom. 7:8, seqq.): "Without the law sin was dead. And I lived
some time without the law. But when the commandment came sin revived;
and I died." Again he says (Rom. 5:20): "Law entered in that sin
might abound." Therefore the Old Law was not good.
Obj. 3: Further, it belongs to the goodness of the law that it should
be possible to obey it, both according to nature, and according to
human custom. But such the Old Law was not: since Peter said (Acts
15:10): "Why tempt you (God) to put a yoke on the necks of the
disciples, which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear?"
Therefore it seems that the Old Law was not good.
_On the contrary,_ The Apostle says (Rom. 7:12): "Wherefore the law
indeed is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good."
_I answer that,_ Without any doubt, the Old Law was good. For just as
a doctrine is shown to be good by the fact that it accords with right
reason, so is a law proved to be good if it accords with reason. Now
the Old Law was in accordance with reason. Because it repressed
concupiscence which is in conflict with reason, as evidenced by the
commandment, "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor's goods" (Ex. 20:17).
Moreover the same law forbade all kinds of sin; and these too are
contrary to reason. Consequently it is evident that it was a good
law. The Apostle argues in the same way (Rom. 7): "I am delighted,"
says he (verse 22), "with the law of God, according to the inward
man": and again (verse 16): "I consent to the law, that is good."
But it must be noted that the good has various degrees, as Dionysius
states (Div. Nom. iv): for there is a perfect good, and an imperfect
good. In things ordained to an end, there is perfect goodness when a
thing is such that it is sufficient in itself to conduce to the end:
while there is imperfect goodness when a thing is of some assistance
in attaining the end, but is not sufficient for the realization
thereof. Thus a medicine is perfectly good, if it gives health to a
man; but it is imperfect, if it helps to cure him, without being able
to bring him back to health. Again it must be observed that the end
of human law is different from the end of Divine law. For the end of
human law is the temporal tranquillity of the state, which end law
effects by directing external actions, as regards those evils which
might disturb the peaceful condition of the state. On the other hand,
the end of the Divine law is to bring man to that end which is
everlasting happiness; which end is hindered by any sin, not only of
external, but also of internal action. Consequently that which
suffices for the perfection of human law, viz. the prohibition and
punishment of sin, does not suffice for the perfection of the Divine
law: but it is requisite that it should make man altogether fit to
partake of everlasting happiness. Now this cannot be done save by the
grace of the Holy Ghost, whereby "charity" which fulfilleth the law
. . . "is spread abroad in our hearts" (Rom. 5:5): since "the grace of
God is life everlasting" (Rom. 6:23). But the Old Law could not
confer this grace, for this was reserved to Christ; because, as it is
written (John 1:17), the law was given "by Moses, grace and truth
came by Jesus Christ." Consequently the Old Law was good indeed, but
imperfect, according to Heb. 7:19: "The law brought nothing to
perfection."
Reply Obj. 1: The Lord refers there to the ceremonial precepts; which
are said not to be good, because they did not confer grace unto the
remission of sins, although by fulfilling these precepts man
confessed himself a sinner. Hence it is said pointedly, "and
judgments in which they shall not live"; i.e. whereby they are unable
to obtain life; and so the text goes on: "And I polluted them," i.e.
showed them to be polluted, "in their own gifts, when they offered
all that opened the womb, for their offenses."
Reply Obj. 2: The law is said to have been deadly, as being not the
cause, but the occasion of death, on account of its imperfection: in
so far as it did not confer grace enabling man to fulfil what is
prescribed, and to avoid what it forbade. Hence this occasion was not
given to men, but taken by them. Wherefore the Apostle says (Rom.
5:11): "Sin, taking occasion by the commandment, seduced me, and by
it killed me." In the same sense when it is said that "the law
entered in that sin might abound," the conjunction "that" must be
taken as consecutive and not final: in so far as men, taking occasion
from the law, sinned all the more, both because a sin became more
grievous after law had forbidden it, and because concupiscence
increased, since we desire a thing the more from its being forbidden.
Reply Obj. 3: The yoke of the law could not be borne without the help
of grace, which the law did not confer: for it is written (Rom.
9:16): "It is not him that willeth, nor of him that runneth," viz.
that he wills and runs in the commandments of God, "but of God that
showeth mercy." Wherefore it is written (Ps. 118:32): "I have run the
way of Thy commandments, when Thou didst enlarge my heart," i.e. by
giving me grace and charity.
________________________