Whether Man Could Commit a Venial Sin in the State of Innocence?
Objection 1: It would seem that man could commit a venial sin in the
state of innocence. Because on 1 Tim. 2:14, "Adam was not seduced," a
gloss says: "Having had no experience of God's severity, it was
possible for him to be so mistaken as to think that what he had done
was a venial sin." But he would not have thought this unless he could
have committed a venial sin. Therefore he could commit a venial sin
without sinning mortally.
Obj. 2: Further Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi, 5): "We must not
suppose that the tempter would have overcome man, unless first of all
there had arisen in man's soul a movement of vainglory which should
have been checked." Now the vainglory which preceded man's defeat,
which was accomplished through his falling into mortal sin, could be
nothing more than a venial sin. In like manner, Augustine says (Gen.
ad lit. xi, 5) that "man was allured by a certain desire of making
the experiment, when he saw that the woman did not die when she had
taken the forbidden fruit." Again there seems to have been a certain
movement of unbelief in Eve, since she doubted what the Lord had
said, as appears from her saying (Gen. 3:3): "Lest perhaps we die."
Now these apparently were venial sins. Therefore man could commit a
venial sin before he committed a mortal sin.
Obj. 3: Further, mortal sin is more opposed to the integrity of the
original state, than venial sin is. Now man could sin mortally
notwithstanding the integrity of the original state. Therefore he
could also sin venially.
_On the contrary,_ Every sin deserves some punishment. But nothing
penal was possible in the state of innocence, as Augustine declares
(De Civ. Dei xiv, 10). Therefore he could not commit a sin that would
not deprive him of that state of integrity. But venial sin does not
change man's state. Therefore he could not sin venially.
_I answer that,_ It is generally admitted that man could not commit a
venial sin in the state of innocence. This, however, is not to be
understood as though on account of the perfection of his state, the
sin which is venial for us would have been mortal for him, if he had
committed it. Because the dignity of a person is circumstance that
aggravates a sin, but it does not transfer it to another species,
unless there be an additional deformity by reason of disobedience, or
vow or the like, which does not apply to the question in point.
Consequently what is venial in itself could not be changed into
mortal by reason of the excellence of the original state. We must
therefore understand this to mean that he could not sin venially,
because it was impossible for him to commit a sin which was venial in
itself, before losing the integrity of the original state by sinning
mortally.
The reason for this is because venial sin occurs in us, either
through the imperfection of the act, as in the case of sudden
movements, in a genus of mortal sin or through some inordinateness in
respect of things referred to the end, the due order of the end being
safeguarded. Now each of these happens on account of some defect of
order, by reason of the lower powers not being checked by the higher.
Because the sudden rising of a movement of the sensuality in us is
due to the sensuality not being perfectly subject to reason: and the
sudden rising of a movement of reason itself is due, in us, to the
fact that the execution of the act of reason is not subject to the
act of deliberation which proceeds from a higher good, as stated
above (Q. 74, A. 10); and that the human mind be out of order as
regards things directed to the end, the due order of the end being
safeguarded, is due to the fact that the things referred to the end
are not infallibly directed under the end, which holds the highest
place, being the beginning, as it were, in matters concerning the
appetite, as stated above (Q. 10, AA. 1, 2, ad 3; Q. 72, A. 5). Now,
in the state of innocence, as stated in the First Part (Q. 95, A. 1),
there was an unerring stability of order, so that the lower powers
were always subjected to the higher, so long as man remained subject
to God, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 13). Hence there can be
no inordinateness in man, unless first of all the highest part of man
were not subject to God, which constitutes a mortal sin. From this it
is evident that, in the state of innocence, man could not commit a
venial sin, before committing a mortal sin.
Reply Obj. 1: In the passage quoted, venial is not taken in the same
sense as we take it now; but by venial sin we mean that which is
easily forgiven.
Reply Obj. 2: This vainglory which preceded man's downfall, was his
first mortal sin, for it is stated to have preceded his downfall into
the outward act of sin. This vainglory was followed, in the man, by
the desire to make and experiment, and in the woman, by doubt, for
she gave way to vainglory, merely through hearing the serpent mention
the precept, as though she refused to be held in check by the precept.
Reply Obj. 3: Mortal sin is opposed to the integrity of the
original state in the fact of its destroying that state: this a venial
sin cannot do. And because the integrity of the primitive state is
incompatible with any inordinateness whatever, the result is that the
first man could not sin venially, before committing a mortal sin.
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