FIRST ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 66, Art. 1]

Whether One Virtue Can Be Greater or Less Than Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one virtue cannot be greater or less

than another. For it is written (Apoc. 21:16) that the sides of the

city of Jerusalem are equal; and a gloss says that the sides denote

the virtues. Therefore all virtues are equal; and consequently one

cannot be greater than another.

Obj. 2: Further, a thing that, by its nature, consists in a maximum,

cannot be more or less. Now the nature of virtue consists in a

maximum, for virtue is "the limit of power," as the Philosopher

states (De Coelo i, text. 116); and Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. ii,

19) that "virtues are very great boons, and no one can use them to

evil purpose." Therefore it seems that one virtue cannot be greater

or less than another.

Obj. 3: Further, the quantity of an effect is measured by the power

of the agent. But perfect, viz. infused virtues, are from God Whose

power is uniform and infinite. Therefore it seems that one virtue

cannot be greater than another.

_On the contrary,_ Wherever there can be increase and greater

abundance, there can be inequality. Now virtues admit of greater

abundance and increase: for it is written (Matt. 5:20): "Unless your

justice abound more than that of the Scribes and Pharisees, you shall

not enter into the kingdom of heaven": and (Prov. 15:5): "In abundant

justice there is the greatest strength (_virtus_)." Therefore it

seems that a virtue can be greater or less than another.

_I answer that,_ When it is asked whether one virtue can be greater

than another, the question can be taken in two senses. First, as

applying to virtues of different species. In this sense it is clear

that one virtue is greater than another; since a cause is always more

excellent than its effect; and among effects, those nearest to the

cause are the most excellent. Now it is clear from what has been said

(Q. 18, A. 5; Q. 61, A. 2) that the cause and root of human good is

the reason. Hence prudence which perfects the reason, surpasses in

goodness the other moral virtues which perfect the appetitive power,

in so far as it partakes of reason. And among these, one is better

than another, according as it approaches nearer to the reason.

Consequently justice, which is in the will, excels the remaining

moral virtues; and fortitude, which is in the irascible part, stands

before temperance, which is in the concupiscible, which has a smaller

share of reason, as stated in _Ethic._ vii, 6.

The question can be taken in another way, as referring to virtues of

the same species. In this way, according to what was said above (Q.

52, A. 1), when we were treating of the intensity of habits, virtue

may be said to be greater or less in two ways: first, in itself;

secondly with regard to the subject that partakes of it. If we

consider it in itself, we shall call it great or little, according to

the things to which it extends. Now whosoever has a virtue, e.g.

temperance, has it in respect of whatever temperance extends to. But

this does not apply to science and art: for every grammarian does not

know everything relating to grammar. And in this sense the Stoics

said rightly, as Simplicius states in his _Commentary on the

Predicaments,_ that virtue cannot be more or less, as science and art

can; because the nature of virtue consists in a maximum.

If, however, we consider virtue on the part of the subject, it may

then be greater or less, either in relation to different times, or in

different men. Because one man is better disposed than another to

attain to the mean of virtue which is defined by right reason; and

this, on account of either greater habituation, or a better natural

disposition, or a more discerning judgment of reason, or again a

greater gift of grace, which is given to each one "according to the

measure of the giving of Christ," as stated in Eph. 4:9. And here the

Stoics erred, for they held that no man should be deemed virtuous,

unless he were, in the highest degree, disposed to virtue. Because

the nature of virtue does not require that man should reach the mean

of right reason as though it were an indivisible point, as the Stoics

thought; but it is enough that he should approach the mean, as stated

in _Ethic._ ii, 6. Moreover, one same indivisible mark is reached

more nearly and more readily by one than by another: as may be seen

when several archers aim at a fixed target.

Reply Obj. 1: This equality is not one of absolute quantity, but of

proportion: because all virtues grow in a man proportionately, as we

shall see further on (A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: This "limit" which belongs to virtue, can have the

character of something _more_ or _less_ good, in the ways explained

above: since, as stated, it is not an indivisible limit.

Reply Obj. 3: God does not work by necessity of nature, but according

to the order of His wisdom, whereby He bestows on men various

measures of virtue, according to Eph. 4:7: "To every one of you

[Vulg.: 'us'] is given grace according to the measure of the giving

of Christ."

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 423 / 746 题