SEVENTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 46, Art. 7]

Whether Anger Is Only Towards Those to Whom One Has an Obligation of

Justice?

Objection 1: It would seem that anger is not only towards those to

whom one has an obligation of justice. For there is no justice

between man and irrational beings. And yet sometimes one is angry

with irrational beings; thus, out of anger, a writer throws away his

pen, or a rider strikes his horse. Therefore anger is not only

towards those to whom one has an obligation of justice.

Obj. 2: Further, "there is no justice towards oneself . . . nor is

there justice towards one's own" (Ethic. v, 6). But sometimes a man

is angry with himself; for instance, a penitent, on account of his

sin; hence it is written (Ps. 4:5): "Be ye angry and sin not."

Therefore anger is not only towards those with whom one has a

relation of justice.

Obj. 3: Further, justice and injustice can be of one man towards an

entire class, or a whole community: for instance, when the state

injures an individual. But anger is not towards a class but only

towards an individual, as the Philosopher states (Rhet. ii, 4).

Therefore properly speaking, anger is not towards those with whom one

is in relation of justice or injustice.

The contrary, however, may be gathered from the Philosopher (Rhet.

ii, 2, 3).

_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 6), anger desires evil as being

a means of just vengeance. Consequently, anger is towards those to

whom we are just or unjust: since vengeance is an act of justice, and

wrong-doing is an act of injustice. Therefore both on the part of the

cause, viz. the harm done by another, and on the part of the

vengeance sought by the angry man, it is evident that anger concerns

those to whom one is just or unjust.

Reply Obj. 1: As stated above (A. 4, ad 2), anger, though it follows

an act of reason, can nevertheless be in dumb animals that are devoid

of reason, in so far as through their natural instinct they are moved

by their imagination to something like rational action. Since then in

man there is both reason and imagination, the movement of anger can

be aroused in man in two ways. First, when only his imagination

denounces the injury: and, in this way, man is aroused to a movement

of anger even against irrational and inanimate beings, which movement

is like that which occurs in animals against anything that injures

them. Secondly, by the reason denouncing the injury: and thus,

according to the Philosopher (Rhet. ii, 3), "it is impossible to be

angry with insensible things, or with the dead": both because they

feel no pain, which is, above all, what the angry man seeks in those

with whom he is angry: and because there is no question of vengeance

on them, since they can do us no harm.

Reply Obj. 2: As the Philosopher says (Ethic. v, 11), "metaphorically

speaking there is a certain justice and injustice between a man and

himself," in so far as the reason rules the irascible and

concupiscible parts of the soul. And in this sense a man is said to

be avenged on himself, and consequently, to be angry with himself.

But properly, and in accordance with the nature of things, a man is

never angry with himself.

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher (Rhet. ii, 4) assigns as one difference

between hatred and anger, that "hatred may be felt towards a class,

as we hate the entire class of thieves; whereas anger is directed

only towards an individual." The reason is that hatred arises from

our considering a quality as disagreeing with our disposition; and

this may refer to a thing in general or in particular. Anger, on the

other hand, ensues from someone having injured us by his action. Now

all actions are the deeds of individuals: and consequently anger is

always pointed at an individual. When the whole state hurts us, the

whole state is reckoned as one individual [*Cf. Q. 29, A. 6].

________________________

Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 314 / 746 题