SIXTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 2, Art. 5]

Whether Man's Happiness Consists in Pleasure?

Objection 1: It would seem that man's happiness consists in pleasure.

For since happiness is the last end, it is not desired for something

else, but other things for it. But this answers to pleasure more than

to anything else: "for it is absurd to ask anyone what is his motive

in wishing to be pleased" (Ethic. x, 2). Therefore happiness consists

principally in pleasure and delight.

Obj. 2: Further, "the first cause goes more deeply into the effect

than the second cause" (De Causis i). Now the causality of the end

consists in its attracting the appetite. Therefore, seemingly that

which moves most the appetite, answers to the notion of the last end.

Now this is pleasure: and a sign of this is that delight so far

absorbs man's will and reason, that it causes him to despise other

goods. Therefore it seems that man's last end, which is happiness,

consists principally in pleasure.

Obj. 3: Further, since desire is for good, it seems that what all

desire is best. But all desire delight; both wise and foolish, and

even irrational creatures. Therefore delight is the best of all.

Therefore happiness, which is the supreme good, consists in pleasure.

_On the contrary,_ Boethius says (De Consol. iii): "Any one that

chooses to look back on his past excesses, will perceive that

pleasures had a sad ending: and if they can render a man happy, there

is no reason why we should not say that the very beasts are happy

too."

_I answer that,_ Because bodily delights are more generally known,

"the name of pleasure has been appropriated to them" (Ethic. vii,

13), although other delights excel them: and yet happiness does not

consist in them. Because in every thing, that which pertains to its

essence is distinct from its proper accident: thus in man it is one

thing that he is a mortal rational animal, and another that he is a

risible animal. We must therefore consider that every delight is a

proper accident resulting from happiness, or from some part of

happiness; since the reason that a man is delighted is that he has

some fitting good, either in reality, or in hope, or at least in

memory. Now a fitting good, if indeed it be the perfect good, is

precisely man's happiness: and if it is imperfect, it is a share of

happiness, either proximate, or remote, or at least apparent.

Therefore it is evident that neither is delight, which results from

the perfect good, the very essence of happiness, but something

resulting therefrom as its proper accident.

But bodily pleasure cannot result from the perfect good even in that

way. For it results from a good apprehended by sense, which is a power

of the soul, which power makes use of the body. Now good pertaining to

the body, and apprehended by sense, cannot be man's perfect good. For

since the rational soul excels the capacity of corporeal matter, that

part of the soul which is independent of a corporeal organ, has a

certain infinity in regard to the body and those parts of the soul

which are tied down to the body: just as immaterial things are in a

way infinite as compared to material things, since a form is, after a

fashion, contracted and bounded by matter, so that a form which is

independent of matter is, in a way, infinite. Therefore sense, which

is a power of the body, knows the singular, which is determinate

through matter: whereas the intellect, which is a power independent of

matter, knows the universal, which is abstracted from matter, and

contains an infinite number of singulars. Consequently it is evident

that good which is fitting to the body, and which causes bodily

delight through being apprehended by sense, is not man's perfect good,

but is quite a trifle as compared with the good of the soul. Hence it

is written (Wis. 7:9) that "all gold in comparison of her, is as a

little sand." And therefore bodily pleasure is neither happiness

itself, nor a proper accident of happiness.

Reply Obj. 1: It comes to the same whether we desire good, or desire

delight, which is nothing else than the appetite's rest in good: thus

it is owing to the same natural force that a weighty body is borne

downwards and that it rests there. Consequently just as good is

desired for itself, so delight is desired for itself and not for

anything else, if the preposition "for" denote the final cause. But

if it denote the formal or rather the motive cause, thus delight is

desirable for something else, i.e. for the good, which is the object

of that delight, and consequently is its principle, and gives it its

form: for the reason that delight is desired is that it is rest in

the thing desired.

Reply Obj. 2: The vehemence of desire for sensible delight arises

from the fact that operations of the senses, through being the

principles of our knowledge, are more perceptible. And so it is that

sensible pleasures are desired by the majority.

Reply Obj. 3: All desire delight in the same way as they desire good:

and yet they desire delight by reason of the good and not conversely,

as stated above (ad 1). Consequently it does not follow that delight

is the supreme and essential good, but that every delight results

from some good, and that some delight results from that which is the

essential and supreme good.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 25 / 746 题