FOURTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 2, Art. 4]

Whether Man's Happiness Consists in Power?

Objection 1: It would seem that happiness consists in power. For all

things desire to become like to God, as to their last end and first

beginning. But men who are in power, seem, on account of the

similarity of power, to be most like to God: hence also in Scripture

they are called "gods" (Ex. 22:28), "Thou shalt not speak ill of the

gods." Therefore happiness consists in power.

Obj. 2: Further, happiness is the perfect good. But the highest

perfection for man is to be able to rule others; which belongs to

those who are in power. Therefore happiness consists in power.

Obj. 3: Further, since happiness is supremely desirable, it is

contrary to that which is before all to be shunned. But, more than

aught else, men shun servitude, which is contrary to power. Therefore

happiness consists in power.

_On the contrary,_ Happiness is the perfect good. But power is most

imperfect. For as Boethius says (De Consol. iii), "the power of man

cannot relieve the gnawings of care, nor can it avoid the thorny path

of anxiety": and further on: "Think you a man is powerful who is

surrounded by attendants, whom he inspires with fear indeed, but whom

he fears still more?"

_I answer that,_ It is impossible for happiness to consist in power;

and this for two reasons. First because power has the nature of

principle, as is stated in _Metaph._ v, 12, whereas happiness has the

nature of last end. Secondly, because power has relation to good and

evil: whereas happiness is man's proper and perfect good. Wherefore

some happiness might consist in the good use of power, which is by

virtue, rather than in power itself.

Now four general reasons may be given to prove that happiness

consists in none of the foregoing external goods. First, because,

since happiness is man's supreme good, it is incompatible with any

evil. Now all the foregoing can be found both in good and in evil

men. Secondly, because, since it is the nature of happiness to

"satisfy of itself," as stated in _Ethic._ i, 7, having gained

happiness, man cannot lack any needful good. But after acquiring any

one of the foregoing, man may still lack many goods that are

necessary to him; for instance, wisdom, bodily health, and such like.

Thirdly, because, since happiness is the perfect good, no evil can

accrue to anyone therefrom. This cannot be said of the foregoing: for

it is written (Eccles. 5:12) that "riches" are sometimes "kept to the

hurt of the owner"; and the same may be said of the other three.

Fourthly, because man is ordained to happiness through principles

that are in him; since he is ordained thereto naturally. Now the four

goods mentioned above are due rather to external causes, and in most

cases to fortune; for which reason they are called goods of fortune.

Therefore it is evident that happiness nowise consists in the

foregoing.

Reply Obj. 1: God's power is His goodness: hence He cannot use His

power otherwise than well. But it is not so with men. Consequently it

is not enough for man's happiness, that he become like God in power,

unless he become like Him in goodness also.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as it is a very good thing for a man to make good

use of power in ruling many, so is it a very bad thing if he makes a

bad use of it. And so it is that power is towards good and evil.

Reply Obj. 3: Servitude is a hindrance to the good use of power:

therefore is it that men naturally shun it; not because man's supreme

good consists in power.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 23 / 746 题