FIFTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 86, Art. 5]

Whether the Remnants of Sin Are Removed When a Mortal Sin Is Forgiven?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the remnants of sin are removed

when a mortal sin is forgiven. For Augustine says in _De Poenitentia_

[*De vera et falsa Poenitentia, the authorship of which is unknown]:

"Our Lord never healed anyone without delivering him wholly; for He

wholly healed the man on the Sabbath, since He delivered his body

from all disease, and his soul from all taint." Now the remnants of

sin belong to the disease of sin. Therefore it does not seem possible

for any remnants of sin to remain when the guilt has been pardoned.

Obj. 2: Further, according to Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv), "good is more

efficacious than evil, since evil does not act save in virtue of some

good." Now, by sinning, man incurs the taint of sin all at once. Much

more, therefore, by repenting, is he delivered also from all remnants

of sin.

Obj. 3: Further, God's work is more efficacious than man's. Now by

the exercise of good human works the remnants of contrary sins are

removed. Much more, therefore, are they taken away by the remission

of guilt, which is a work of God.

_On the contrary,_ We read (Mk. 8) that the blind man whom our Lord

enlightened, was restored first of all to imperfect sight, wherefore

he said (Mk. 8:24): "I see men, as it were trees, walking"; and

afterwards he was restored perfectly, "so that he saw all things

clearly." Now the enlightenment of the blind man signifies the

delivery of the sinner. Therefore after the first remission of sin,

whereby the sinner is restored to spiritual sight, there still remain

in him some remnants of his past sin.

_I answer that,_ Mortal sin, in so far as it turns inordinately to a

mutable good, produces in the soul a certain disposition, or even a

habit, if the acts be repeated frequently. Now it has been said above

(A. 4) that the guilt of mortal sin is pardoned through grace

removing the aversion of the mind from God. Nevertheless when that

which is on the part of the aversion has been taken away by grace,

that which is on the part of the inordinate turning to a mutable good

can remain, since this may happen to be without the other, as stated

above (A. 4). Consequently, there is no reason why, after the guilt

has been forgiven, the dispositions caused by preceding acts should

not remain, which are called the remnants of sin. Yet they remain

weakened and diminished, so as not to domineer over man, and they are

after the manner of dispositions rather than of habits, like the

_fomes_ which remains after Baptism.

Reply Obj. 1: God heals the whole man perfectly; but sometimes

suddenly, as Peter's mother-in-law was restored at once to perfect

health, so that "rising she ministered to them" (Luke 4:39), and

sometimes by degrees, as we said above (Q. 44, A. 3, ad 2) about the

blind man who was restored to sight (Matt. 8). And so too, He

sometimes turns the heart of man with such power, that it receives at

once perfect spiritual health, not only the guilt being pardoned, but

all remnants of sin being removed as was the case with Magdalen (Luke

7); whereas at other times He sometimes first pardons the guilt by

operating grace, and afterwards, by co-operating grace, removes the

remnants of sin by degrees.

Reply Obj. 2: Sin too, sometimes induces at once a weak disposition,

such as is the result of one act, and sometimes a stronger

disposition, the result of many acts.

Reply Obj. 3: One human act does not remove all the remnants of sin,

because, as stated in the _Predicaments_ (Categor. viii) "a vicious

man by doing good works will make but little progress so as to be any

better, but if he continue in good practice, he will end in being

good as to acquired virtue." But God's grace does this much more

effectively, whether by one or by several acts.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 631 / 654 题