SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 86, Art. 2]

Whether Sin Can Be Pardoned Without Penance?

Objection 1: It would seem that sin can be pardoned without Penance.

For the power of God is no less with regard to adults than with

regard to children. But He pardons the sins of children without

Penance. Therefore He also pardons adults without penance.

Obj. 2: Further, God did not bind His power to the sacraments. But

Penance is a sacrament. Therefore by God's power sin can be pardoned

without Penance.

Obj. 3: Further, God's mercy is greater than man's. Now man sometimes

forgives another for offending him, without his repenting: wherefore

our Lord commanded us (Matt. 5:44): "Love your enemies, do good to

them that hate you." Much more, therefore, does God pardon men for

offending him, without their repenting.

_On the contrary,_ The Lord said (Jer. 18:8): "If that nation . . .

shall repent of their evil" which they have done, "I also will repent

of the evil that I have thought to do them," so that, on the other

hand, if man "do not penance," it seems that God will not pardon him

his sin.

_I answer that,_ It is impossible for a mortal actual sin to be

pardoned without penance, if we speak of penance as a virtue. For, as

sin is an offense against God, He pardons sin in the same way as he

pardons an offense committed against Him. Now an offense is directly

opposed to grace, since one man is said to be offended with another,

because he excludes him from his grace. Now, as stated in the Second

Part (I-II, Q. 110, A. 1), the difference between the grace of God

and the grace of man, is that the latter does not cause, but

presupposes true or apparent goodness in him who is graced, whereas

the grace of God causes goodness in the man who is graced, because

the good-will of God, which is denoted by the word "grace," is the

cause of all created good. Hence it is possible for a man to pardon

an offense, for which he is offended with someone, without any change

in the latter's will; but it is impossible that God pardon a man for

an offense, without his will being changed. Now the offense of mortal

sin is due to man's will being turned away from God, through being

turned to some mutable good. Consequently, for the pardon of this

offense against God, it is necessary for man's will to be so changed

as to turn to God and to renounce having turned to something else in

the aforesaid manner, together with a purpose of amendment; all of

which belongs to the nature of penance as a virtue. Therefore it is

impossible for a sin to be pardoned anyone without penance as a

virtue.

But the sacrament of Penance, as stated above (Q. 88, A. 3), is

perfected by the priestly office of binding and loosing, without

which God can forgive sins, even as Christ pardoned the adulterous

woman, as related in John 8, and the woman that was a sinner, as

related in Luke vii, whose sins, however, He did not forgive without

the virtue of penance: for as Gregory states (Hom. xxxiii in Evang.),

"He drew inwardly by grace," i.e. by penance, "her whom He received

outwardly by His mercy."

Reply Obj. 1: In children there is none but original sin, which

consists, not in an actual disorder of the will, but in a habitual

disorder of nature, as explained in the Second Part (I-II, Q. 82, A.

1), and so in them the forgiveness of sin is accompanied by a

habitual change resulting from the infusion of grace and virtues, but

not by an actual change. On the other hand, in the case of an adult,

in whom there are actual sins, which consist in an actual disorder of

the will, there is no remission of sins, even in Baptism, without an

actual change of the will, which is the effect of Penance.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument takes Penance as a sacrament.

Reply Obj. 3: God's mercy is more powerful than man's, in that it

moves man's will to repent, which man's mercy cannot do.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 628 / 654 题