FIRST ARTICLE [III, Q. 85, Art. 1]

Whether Penance Is a Virtue?

Objection 1: It would seem that penance is not a virtue. For penance

is a sacrament numbered among the other sacraments, as was shown

above (Q. 84, A. 1; Q. 65, A. 1). Now no other sacrament is a virtue.

Therefore neither is penance a virtue.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. iv, 9), "shame

is not a virtue," both because it is a passion accompanied by a

bodily alteration, and because it is not the disposition of a perfect

thing, since it is about an evil act, so that it has no place in a

virtuous man. Now, in like manner, penance is a passion accompanied

by a bodily alteration, viz. tears, according to Gregory, who says

(Hom. xxxiv in Evang.) that "penance consists in deploring past

sins": moreover it is about evil deeds, viz. sins, which have no

place in a virtuous man. Therefore penance is not a virtue.

Obj. 3: Further, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. iv, 3), "no

virtuous man is foolish." But it seems foolish to deplore what has

been done in the past, since it cannot be otherwise, and yet this is

what we understand by penance. Therefore penance is not a virtue.

_On the contrary,_ The precepts of the Law are about acts of virtue,

because "a lawgiver intends to make the citizens virtuous" (Ethic.

ii, 1). But there is a precept about penance in the Divine law,

according to Matt. 4:17: "Do penance," etc. Therefore penance is a

virtue.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (Obj. 2; Q. 84, A. 10, ad 4), to

repent is to deplore something one has done. Now it has been stated

above (Q. 84, A. 9) that sorrow or sadness is twofold. First, it

denotes a passion of the sensitive appetite, and in this sense

penance is not a virtue, but a passion. Secondly, it denotes an act

of the will, and in this way it implies choice, and if this be right,

it must, of necessity, be an act of virtue. For it is stated in

_Ethic._ ii, 6 that virtue is a habit of choosing according to right

reason. Now it belongs to right reason than one should grieve for a

proper object of grief as one ought to grieve, and for an end for

which one ought to grieve. And this is observed in the penance of

which we are speaking now; since the penitent assumes a moderated

grief for his past sins, with the intention of removing them. Hence

it is evident that the penance of which we are speaking now, is

either a virtue or the act of a virtue.

Reply Obj. 1: As stated above (Q. 84, A. 1, ad 1; AA. 2, 3), in the

sacrament of Penance, human acts take the place of matter, which is

not the case in Baptism and Confirmation. Wherefore, since virtue is

a principle of an act, penance is either a virtue or accompanies a

virtue, rather than Baptism or Confirmation.

Reply Obj. 2: Penance, considered as a passion, is not a virtue, as

stated above, and it is thus that it is accompanied by a bodily

alteration. On the other hand, it is a virtue, according as it

includes a right choice on the part of the will; which, however,

applies to penance rather than to shame. Because shame regards the

evil deed as present, whereas penance regards the evil deed as past.

Now it is contrary to the perfection of virtue that one should have

an evil deed actually present, of which one ought to be ashamed;

whereas it is not contrary to the perfection of virtue that we should

have previously committed evil deeds, of which it behooves us to

repent, since a man from being wicked becomes virtuous.

Reply Obj. 3: It would indeed be foolish to grieve for what has

already been done, with the intention of trying to make it not done.

But the penitent does not intend this: for his sorrow is displeasure

or disapproval with regard to the past deed, with the intention of

removing its result, viz. the anger of God and the debt of

punishment: and this is not foolish.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 620 / 654 题