Whether This Sacrament Was Suitably Instituted in the New Law?
Objection 1: It would seem that this sacrament was unsuitably
instituted in the New Law. Because those things which belong to the
natural law need not to be instituted. Now it belongs to the natural
law that one should repent of the evil one has done: for it is
impossible to love good without grieving for its contrary. Therefore
Penance was unsuitably instituted in the New Law.
Obj. 2: Further, that which existed in the Old Law had not to be
instituted in the New. Now there was Penance in the old Law wherefore
the Lord complains (Jer. 8:6) saying: "There is none that doth
penance for his sin, saying: What have I done?" Therefore Penance
should not have been instituted in the New Law.
Obj. 3: Further, Penance comes after Baptism, since it is a second
plank, as stated above (A. 6). Now it seems that our Lord instituted
Penance before Baptism, because we read that at the beginning of His
preaching He said (Matt. 4:17): "Do penance, for the kingdom of
heaven is at hand." Therefore this sacrament was not suitably
instituted in the New Law.
Obj. 4: Further, the sacraments of the New Law were instituted by
Christ, by Whose power they work, as stated above (Q. 62, A. 5; Q.
64, A. 1). But Christ does not seem to have instituted this
sacrament, since He made no use of it, as of the other sacraments
which He instituted. Therefore this sacrament was unsuitably
instituted in the New Law.
_On the contrary,_ our Lord said (Luke 24:46, 47): "It behooved
Christ to suffer, and to rise again from the dead the third day: and
that penance and remission of sins should be preached in His name
unto all nations."
_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 1, ad 1, ad 2), in this
sacrament the acts of the penitent are as matter, while the part
taken by the priest, who works as Christ's minister, is the formal
and completive element of the sacrament. Now in the other sacraments
the matter pre-exists, being provided by nature, as water, or by art,
as bread: but that such and such a matter be employed for a sacrament
requires to be decided by the institution; while the sacrament
derives its form and power entirely from the institution of Christ,
from Whose Passion the power of the sacraments proceeds.
Accordingly the matter of this sacrament pre-exists, being provided
by nature; since it is by a natural principle of reason that man is
moved to repent of the evil he has done: yet it is due to Divine
institution that man does penance in this or that way. Wherefore at
the outset of His preaching, our Lord admonished men, not only to
repent, but also to "do penance," thus pointing to the particular
manner of actions required for this sacrament. As to the part to be
taken by the ministers, this was fixed by our Lord when He said to
Peter (Matt. 16:19): "To thee will I give the keys of the kingdom of
heaven," etc.; but it was after His resurrection that He made known
the efficacy of this sacrament and the source of its power, when He
said (Luke 24:47) that "penance and remission of sins should be
preached in His name unto all nations," after speaking of His Passion
and resurrection. Because it is from the power of the name of Jesus
Christ suffering and rising again that this sacrament is efficacious
unto the remission of sins.
It is therefore evident that this sacrament was suitably instituted
in the New Law.
Reply Obj. 1: It is a natural law that one should repent of the evil
one has done, by grieving for having done it, and by seeking a remedy
for one's grief in some way or other, and also that one should show
some signs of grief, even as the Ninevites did, as we read in John 3.
And yet even in their case there was also something of faith which
they had received through Jonas' preaching, inasmuch as they did
these things in the hope that they would receive pardon from God,
according as we read (John 3:9): "Who can tell if God will turn and
forgive, and will turn away from His fierce anger, and we shall not
perish?" But just as other matters which are of the natural law were
fixed in detail by the institution of the Divine law, as we have
stated in the Second Part (I-II, Q. 91, A. 4; I-II, Q. 95, A. 2; Q.
99), so was it with Penance.
Reply Obj. 2: Things which are of the natural law were determined in
various ways in the Old and in the New Law, in keeping with the
imperfection of the Old, and the perfection of the New. Wherefore
Penance was fixed in a certain way in the Old Law--with regard to
sorrow, that it should be in the heart rather than in external signs,
according to Joel 2:13: "Rend your hearts and not your garments"; and
with regard to seeking a remedy for sorrow, that they should in some
way confess their sins, at least in general, to God's ministers.
Wherefore the Lord said (Lev. 5:17, 18): "If anyone sin through
ignorance . . . he shall offer of the flocks a ram without blemish to
the priest, according to the measure and estimation of the sin, and
the priest shall pray for him, because he did it ignorantly, and it
shall be forgiven him"; since by the very fact of making an offering
for his sin, a man, in a fashion, confessed his sin to the priest.
And accordingly it is written (Prov. 28:13): "He that hideth his
sins, shall not prosper: but he that shall confess, and forsake them,
shall obtain mercy." Not yet, however, was the power of the keys
instituted, which is derived from Christ's Passion, and consequently
it was not yet ordained that a man should grieve for his sin, with
the purpose of submitting himself by confession and satisfaction to
the keys of the Church, in the hope of receiving forgiveness through
the power of Christ's Passion.
Reply Obj. 3: If we note carefully what our Lord said about the
necessity of Baptism (John 3:3, seqq.), we shall see that this was
said before His words about the necessity of Penance (Matt. 4:17);
because He spoke to Nicodemus about Baptism before the imprisonment
of John, of whom it is related afterwards (John 3:23, 24) that he
baptized, whereas His words about Penance were said after John was
cast into prison.
If, however, He had admonished men to do penance before admonishing
them to be baptized, this would be because also before Baptism some
kind of penance is required, according to the words of Peter (Acts
2:38): "Do penance, and be baptized, every one of you."
Reply Obj. 4: Christ did not use the Baptism which He instituted, but
was baptized with the baptism of John, as stated above (Q. 39, AA. 1,
2). Nor did He use it actively by administering it Himself, because
He "did not baptize" as a rule, "but His disciples" did, as related
in John 4:2, although it is to be believed that He baptized His
disciples, as Augustine asserts (Ep. cclxv, ad Seleuc.). But with
regard to His institution of this sacrament it was nowise fitting
that He should use it, neither by repenting Himself, in Whom there
was no sin, nor by administering the sacrament to others, since, in
order to show His mercy and power, He was wont to confer the effect
of this sacrament without the sacrament itself, as stated above (A.
5, ad 3). On the other hand, He both received and gave to others the
sacrament of the Eucharist, both in order to commend the excellence
of that sacrament, and because that sacrament is a memorial of His
Passion, in which Christ is both priest and victim.
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