Whether the Form of This Sacrament Is: "I Absolve Thee"?
Objection 1: It would seem that the form of this sacrament is not: "I
absolve thee." Because the forms of the sacraments are received from
Christ's institution and the Church's custom. But we do not read that
Christ instituted this form. Nor is it in common use; in fact in
certain absolutions which are given publicly in church (e.g. at Prime
and Compline and on Maundy Thursday), absolution is given not in the
indicative form by saying: "I absolve thee," but in the deprecatory
form, by saying: "May Almighty God have mercy on you," or: "May
Almighty God grant you absolution and forgiveness." Therefore the
form of this sacrament is not: "I absolve thee."
Obj. 2: Further, Pope Leo says (Ep. cviii) that God's forgiveness
cannot be obtained without the priestly supplications: and he is
speaking there of God's forgiveness granted to the penitent.
Therefore the form of this sacrament should be deprecatory.
Obj. 3: Further, to absolve from sin is the same as to remit sin. But
God alone remits sin, for He alone cleanses man inwardly from sin, as
Augustine says (Contra Donatist. v, 21). Therefore it seems that God
alone absolves from sin. Therefore the priest should say not: "I
absolve thee," as neither does he say: "I remit thy sins."
Obj. 4: Further, just as our Lord gave His disciples the power to
absolve from sins, so also did He give them the power "to heal
infirmities," "to cast out devils," and "to cure diseases" (Matt.
10:1; Luke 9:1). Now the apostles, in healing the sick, did not use
the words: "I heal thee," but: "The Lord Jesus Christ heal [Vulg.:
'heals'] thee," as Peter said to the palsied man (Acts 9:34).
Therefore since priests have the power which Christ gave His
apostles, it seems that they should not use the form: "I absolve
thee," but: "May Christ absolve thee."
Obj. 5: Further, some explain this form by stating that when they
say: "I absolve thee," they mean "I declare you to be absolved." But
neither can this be done by a priest unless it be revealed to him by
God, wherefore, as we read in Matt. 16:19 before it was said to
Peter: "Whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth," etc., it was said to
him (Matt. 16:17): "Blessed art thou Simon Bar-Jona: because flesh
and blood have not revealed it to thee, but My Father Who is in
heaven." Therefore it seems presumptuous for a priest, who has
received no revelation on the matter, to say: "I absolve thee," even
if this be explained to mean: "I declare thee absolved."
_On the contrary,_ As our Lord said to His disciples (Matt. 28:19):
"Going . . . teach ye all nations, baptizing them," etc., so did He
say to Peter (Matt. 16:19): "Whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth,"
etc. Now the priest, relying on the authority of those words of
Christ, says: "I baptize thee." Therefore on the same authority he
should say in this sacrament: "I absolve thee."
_I answer that,_ The perfection of a thing is ascribed to its form.
Now it has been stated above (A. 1, ad 2) that this sacrament is
perfected by that which is done by the priest. Wherefore the part
taken by the penitent, whether it consist of words or deeds, must
needs be the matter of this sacrament, while the part taken by the
priest, takes the place of the form.
Now since the sacraments of the New Law accomplish what they signify,
as stated above (Q. 62, A. 1, ad 1), it behooves the sacramental form
to signify the sacramental effect in a manner that is in keeping with
the matter. Hence the form of Baptism is: "I baptize thee," and the
form of Confirmation is: "I sign thee with the sign of the cross, and
I confirm thee with the chrism of salvation," because these
sacraments are perfected in the use of their matter: while in the
sacrament of the Eucharist, which consists in the very consecration
of the matter, the reality of the consecration is expressed in the
words: "This is My Body."
Now this sacrament, namely the sacrament of Penance, consists not in
the consecration of a matter, nor in the use of a hallowed matter,
but rather in the removal of a certain matter, viz. sin, in so far as
sins are said to be the matter of Penance, as explained above (A. 2).
This removal is expressed by the priest saying: "I absolve thee":
because sins are fetters, according to Prov. 5:22. "His own
iniquities catch the wicked, and he is fast bound with the ropes of
his own sins." Wherefore it is evident that this is the most fitting
form of this sacrament: "I absolve thee."
Reply Obj. 1: This form is taken from Christ's very words which He
addressed to Peter (Matt. 16:19): "Whatsoever thou shalt loose on
earth," etc., and such is the form employed by the Church in
sacramental absolution. But such absolutions as are given in public
are not sacramental, but are prayers for the remission of venial
sins. Wherefore in giving sacramental absolution it would not suffice
to say: "May Almighty God have mercy on thee," or: "May God grant
thee absolution and forgiveness," because by such words the priest
does not signify the giving of absolution, but prays that it may be
given. Nevertheless the above prayer is said before the sacramental
absolution is given, lest the sacramental effect be hindered on the
part of the penitent, whose acts are as matter in this sacrament, but
not in Baptism or Confirmation.
Reply Obj. 2: The words of Leo are to be understood of the prayer
that precedes the absolution, and do not exclude the fact that the
priest pronounces absolution.
Reply Obj. 3: God alone absolves from sin and forgives sins
authoritatively; yet priests do both ministerially, because the words
of the priest in this sacrament work as instruments of the Divine
power, as in the other sacraments: because it is the Divine power
that works inwardly in all the sacramental signs, be they things or
words, as shown above (Q. 62, A. 4; Q. 64, AA. 1, 2). Wherefore our
Lord expressed both: for He said to Peter (Matt. 16:19): "Whatsoever
thou shalt loose on earth," etc., and to His disciples (John 20:23):
"Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them." Yet the
priest says: "I absolve thee," rather than: "I forgive thee thy
sins," because it is more in keeping with the words of our Lord, by
expressing the power of the keys whereby priests absolve.
Nevertheless, since the priest absolves ministerially, something is
suitably added in reference to the supreme authority of God, by the
priest saying: "I absolve thee in the name of the Father, and of the
Son, and of the Holy Ghost," or by the power of Christ's Passion, or
by the authority of God. However, as this is not defined by the words
of Christ, as it is for Baptism, this addition is left to the
discretion of the priest.
Reply Obj. 4: Power was given to the apostles, not that they
themselves might heal the sick, but that the sick might be healed at
the prayer of the apostles: whereas power was given to them to work
instrumentally or ministerially in the sacraments; wherefore they
could express their own agency in the sacramental forms rather than
in the healing of infirmities. Nevertheless in the latter case they
did not always use the deprecatory form, but sometimes employed the
indicative or imperative: thus we read (Acts 3:6) that Peter said to
the lame man: "What I have, I give thee: In the name of Jesus Christ
of Nazareth, arise and walk."
Reply Obj. 5: It is true in a sense that the words, "I absolve thee"
mean "I declare thee absolved," but this explanation is incomplete.
Because the sacraments of the New Law not only signify, but effect
what they signify. Wherefore, just as the priest in baptizing anyone,
declares by deed and word that the person is washed inwardly, and
this not only significatively but also effectively, so also when he
says: "I absolve thee," he declares the man to be absolved not only
significatively but also effectively. And yet he does not speak as of
something uncertain, because just as the other sacraments of the New
Law have, of themselves, a sure effect through the power of Christ's
Passion, which effect, nevertheless, may be impeded on the part of
the recipient, so is it with this sacrament. Hence Augustine says (De
Adult. Conjug. ii): "There is nothing disgraceful or onerous in the
reconciliation of husband and wife, when adultery committed has been
washed away, since there is no doubt that remission of sins is
granted through the keys of the kingdom of heaven." Consequently
there is no need for a special revelation to be made to the priest,
but the general revelation of faith suffices, through which sins are
forgiven. Hence the revelation of faith is said to have been made to
Peter.
It would be a more complete explanation to say that the words, "I
absolve thee" mean: "I grant thee the sacrament of absolution."
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