Whether Christ Should Have Demonstrated the Truth of His Resurrection
by Proofs?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ should not have demonstrated
the truth of His Resurrection by proofs. For Ambrose says (De Fide,
ad Gratian. i): "Let there be no proofs where faith is required." But
faith is required regarding the Resurrection. Therefore proofs are
out of place there.
Obj. 2: Further, Gregory says (Hom. xxvi): "Faith has no merit where
human reason supplies the test." But it was no part of Christ's
office to void the merit of faith. Consequently, it was not for Him
to confirm the Resurrection by proofs.
Obj. 3: Further, Christ came into the world in order that men might
attain beatitude through Him, according to John 10:10: "I am come
that they may have life, and may have it more abundantly." But
supplying proofs seems to be a hindrance in the way of man's
beatitude; because our Lord Himself said (John 20:29): "Blessed are
they that have not seen, and have believed." Consequently, it seems
that Christ ought not to manifest His Resurrection by any proofs.
_On the contrary,_ It is related in Acts 1:3, that Christ appeared to
His disciples "for forty days by many proofs, speaking of the Kingdom
of God."
_I answer that,_ The word "proof" is susceptible of a twofold
meaning: sometimes it is employed to designate any sort "of reason in
confirmation of what is a matter of doubt" [*Tully, _Topic._ ii]: and
sometimes it means a sensible sign employed to manifest the truth;
thus also Aristotle occasionally uses the term in his works [*Cf.
Prior. Anal. ii; Rhetor. i]. Taking "proof" in the first sense,
Christ did not demonstrate His Resurrection to the disciples by
proofs, because such argumentative proof would have to be grounded on
some principles: and if these were not known to the disciples,
nothing would thereby be demonstrated to them, because nothing can be
known from the unknown. And if such principles were known to them,
they would not go beyond human reason, and consequently would not be
efficacious for establishing faith in the Resurrection, which is
beyond human reason, since principles must be assumed which are of
the same order, according to 1 Poster. But it was from the authority
of the Sacred Scriptures that He proved to them the truth of His
Resurrection, which authority is the basis of faith, when He said:
"All things must needs be fulfilled which are written in the Law, and
in the prophets, and in the Psalms, concerning Me": as is set forth
Luke 24:44.
But if the term "proof" be taken in the second sense, then Christ is
said to have demonstrated His Resurrection by proofs, inasmuch as by
most evident signs He showed that He was truly risen. Hence where our
version has "by many proofs," the Greek text, instead of proof has
_tekmerion_, i.e. "an evident sign affording positive proof" [*Cf.
Prior. Anal. ii]. Now Christ showed these signs of the Resurrection
to His disciples, for two reasons. First, because their hearts were
not disposed so as to accept readily the faith in the Resurrection.
Hence He says Himself (Luke 24:25): "O foolish and slow of heart to
believe": and (Mk. 16:14): "He upbraided them with their incredulity
and hardness of heart." Secondly, that their testimony might be
rendered more efficacious through the signs shown them, according to
1 John 1:1, 3: "That which we have seen, and have heard, and our
hands have handled . . . we declare."
Reply Obj. 1: Ambrose is speaking there of proofs drawn from human
reason, which are useless for demonstrating things of faith, as was
shown above.
Reply Obj. 2: The merit of faith arises from this, that at God's
bidding man believes what he does not see. Accordingly, only that
reason debars merit of faith which enables one to see by knowledge
what is proposed for belief: and this is demonstrative argument. But
Christ did not make use of any such argument for demonstrating His
Resurrection.
Reply Obj. 3: As stated already (ad 2), the merit of beatitude, which
comes of faith, is not entirely excluded except a man refuse to
believe [whatever he does not see]. But for a man to believe from
visible signs the things he does not see, does not entirely deprive
him of faith nor of the merit of faith: just as Thomas, to whom it
was said (John 20:29): "'Because thou hast seen Me, Thomas, thou hast
believed,' saw one thing and believed another" [*Gregory, Hom. xxvi]:
the wounds were what he saw, God was the object of His belief. But
his is the more perfect faith who does not require such helps for
belief. Hence, to put to shame the faith of some men, our Lord said
(John 4:48): "Unless you see signs and wonders, you believe not."
From this one can learn how they who are so ready to believe God,
even without beholding signs, are blessed in comparison with them who
do not believe except they see the like.
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