Whether It Was Fitting for Christ to Suffer at the Hands of the
Gentiles?
Objection 1: It would seem unfitting that Christ should suffer at the
hands of the Gentiles. For since men were to be freed from sin by
Christ's death, it would seem fitting that very few should sin in His
death. But the Jews sinned in His death, on whose behalf it is said
(Matt. 21:38): "This is the heir; come, let us kill him." It seems
fitting, therefore, that the Gentiles should not be implicated in the
sin of Christ's slaying.
Obj. 2: Further, the truth should respond to the figure. Now it was
not the Gentiles but the Jews who offered the figurative sacrifices
of the Old Law. Therefore neither ought Christ's Passion, which was a
true sacrifice, to be fulfilled at the hands of the Gentiles.
Obj. 3: Further, as related John 5:18, "the Jews sought to kill"
Christ because "He did not only break the sabbath, but also said God
was His Father, making Himself equal to God." But these things seemed
to be only against the Law of the Jews: hence they themselves said
(John 19:7): "According to the Law He ought to die because He made
Himself the Son of God." It seems fitting, therefore, that Christ
should suffer, at the hands not of the Gentiles, but of the Jews, and
that what they said was untrue: "It is not lawful for us to put any
man to death," since many sins are punishable with death according to
the Law, as is evident from Lev. 20.
_On the contrary,_ our Lord Himself says (Matt. 20:19): "They shall
deliver Him to the Gentiles to be mocked, and scourged, and
crucified."
_I answer that,_ The effect of Christ's Passion was foreshown by the
very manner of His death. For Christ's Passion wrought its effect of
salvation first of all among the Jews, very many of whom were
baptized in His death, as is evident from Acts 2:41 and Acts 4:4.
Afterwards, by the preaching of Jews, Christ's Passion passed on to
the Gentiles. Consequently it was fitting that Christ should begin
His sufferings at the hands of the Jews, and, after they had
delivered Him up, finish His Passion at the hands of the Gentiles.
Reply Obj. 1: In order to demonstrate the fulness of His love, on
account of which He suffered, Christ upon the cross prayed for His
persecutors. Therefore, that the fruits of His petition might accrue
to Jews and Gentiles, Christ willed to suffer from both.
Reply Obj. 2: Christ's Passion was the offering of a sacrifice,
inasmuch as He endured death of His own free-will out of charity: but
in so far as He suffered from His persecutors it was not a sacrifice,
but a most grievous sin.
Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine says (Tract. cxiv in Joan.): "The Jews
said that 'it is not lawful for us to put any man to death,' because
they understood that it was not lawful for them to put any man to
death" owing to the sacredness of the feast-day, which they had
already begun to celebrate. or, as Chrysostom observes (Hom. lxxxiii
in Joan.), because they wanted Him to be slain, not as a transgressor
of the Law, but as a public enemy, since He had made Himself out to
be a king, of which it was not their place to judge. Or, again,
because it was not lawful for them to crucify Him (as they wanted
to), but to stone Him, as they did to Stephen. Better still is it to
say that the power of putting to death was taken from them by the
Romans, whose subjects they were.
_______________________