Whether Christ Should Have Preached Not Only to the Jews, but Also to
the Gentiles?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ should have preached not only
to the Jews, but also to the Gentiles. For it is written (Isa. 49:6):
"It is a small thing that thou shouldst be My servant to raise up the
tribes of Israel [Vulg.: 'Jacob'] and to convert the dregs of Jacob
[Vulg.: 'Israel']: behold, I have given thee to be the light of the
Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation even to the farthest part
of the earth." But Christ gave light and salvation through His
doctrine. Therefore it seems that it was "a small thing" that He
preached to Jews alone, and not to the Gentiles.
Obj. 2: Further, as it is written (Matt. 7:29): "He was teaching them
as one having power." Now the power of doctrine is made more manifest
in the instruction of those who, like the Gentiles, have received no
tidings whatever; hence the Apostle says (Rom. 15:20): "I have so
preached the [Vulg.: 'this'] gospel, not where Christ was named, lest
I should build upon another man's foundation." Therefore much rather
should Christ have preached to the Gentiles than to the Jews.
Obj. 3: Further, it is more useful to instruct many than one. But
Christ instructed some individual Gentiles, such as the Samaritan
woman (John 4) and the Chananaean woman (Matt. 15). Much more reason,
therefore, was there for Christ to preach to the Gentiles in general.
_On the contrary,_ our Lord said (Matt. 15:24): "I was not sent but
to the sheep that are lost of the house of Israel." And (Rom. 10:15)
it is written: "How shall they preach unless they be sent?" Therefore
Christ should not have preached to the Gentiles.
_I answer that,_ It was fitting that Christ's preaching, whether
through Himself or through His apostles, should be directed at first
to the Jews alone. First, in order to show that by His coming the
promises were fulfilled which had been made to the Jews of old, and
not to the Gentiles. Thus the Apostle says (Rom. 15:8): "I say that
Christ . . . was minister of the circumcision," i.e. the apostle and
preacher of the Jews, "for the truth of God, to confirm the promises
made unto the fathers."
Secondly, in order to show that His coming was of God; because, as is
written Rom. 13:1: "Those things which are of God are well ordered
[Vulg.: 'those that are, are ordained of God']." Now the right order
demanded that the doctrine of Christ should be made known first to
the Jews, who, by believing in and worshiping one God, were nearer to
God, and that it should be transmitted through them to the Gentiles:
just as in the heavenly hierarchy the Divine enlightenment comes to
the lower angels through the higher. Hence on Matt. 15:24, "I was not
sent but to the sheep that are lost in the house of Israel," Jerome
says: "He does not mean by this that He was not sent to the Gentiles,
but that He was sent to the Jews first." And so we read (Isa. 66:19):
"I will send of them that shall be saved," i.e. of the Jews, "to the
Gentiles . . . and they shall declare My glory unto the Gentiles."
Thirdly, in order to deprive the Jews of ground for quibbling. Hence
on Matt. 10:5, "Go ye not into the way of the Gentiles." Jerome says:
"It behooved Christ's coming to be announced to the Jews first, lest
they should have a valid excuse, and say that they had rejected our
Lord because He had sent His apostles to the Gentiles and Samaritans."
Fourthly, because it was through the triumph of the cross that Christ
merited power and lordship over the Gentiles. Hence it is written
(Apoc. 2:26, 28): "He that shall overcome . . . I will give him power
over the nations . . . as I also have received of My Father"; and
that because He became "obedient unto the death of the cross, God
hath exalted Him . . . that in the name of Jesus every knee should
bow . . ." and that "every tongue should confess Him" (Phil. 2:8-11).
Consequently He did not wish His doctrine to be preached to the
Gentiles before His Passion: it was after His Passion that He said to
His disciples (Matt. 28:19): "Going, teach ye all nations." For this
reason it was that when, shortly before His Passion, certain Gentiles
wished to see Jesus, He said: "Unless the grain of wheat falling into
the ground dieth, itself remaineth alone: but if it die it bringeth
forth much fruit" (John 12:20-25); and as Augustine says, commenting
on this passage: "He called Himself the grain of wheat that must be
mortified by the unbelief of the Jews, multiplied by the faith of the
nations."
Reply Obj. 1: Christ was given to be the light and salvation of the
Gentiles through His disciples, whom He sent to preach to them.
Reply Obj. 2: It is a sign, not of lesser, but of greater power to do
something by means of others rather than by oneself. And thus the
Divine power of Christ was specially shown in this, that He bestowed
on the teaching of His disciples such a power that they converted the
Gentiles to Christ, although these had heard nothing of Him.
Now the power of Christ's teaching is to be considered in the
miracles by which He confirmed His doctrine, in the efficacy of His
persuasion, and in the authority of His words, for He spoke as being
Himself above the Law when He said: "But I say to you" (Matt. 5:22,
28, 32, 34, 39, 44); and, again, in the force of His righteousness
shown in His sinless manner of life.
Reply Obj. 3: Just as it was unfitting that Christ should at the
outset make His doctrine known to the Gentiles equally with the Jews,
in order that He might appear as being sent to the Jews, as to the
first-born people; so neither was it fitting for Him to neglect the
Gentiles altogether, lest they should be deprived of the hope of
salvation. For this reason certain individual Gentiles were admitted,
on account of the excellence of their faith and devotedness.
_______________________