FIRST ARTICLE [III, Q. 41, Art. 1]

Whether It Was Becoming That Christ Should Be Tempted?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was not becoming for Christ to be

tempted. For to tempt is to make an experiment, which is not done

save in regard to something unknown. But the power of Christ was

known even to the demons; for it is written (Luke 4:41) that "He

suffered them not to speak, for they knew that He was Christ."

Therefore it seems that it was unbecoming for Christ to be tempted.

Obj. 2: Further, Christ was come in order to destroy the works of the

devil, according to 1 John 3:8: "For this purpose the Son of God

appeared, that He might destroy the works of the devil." But it is

not for the same to destroy the works of a certain one and to suffer

them. Therefore it seems unbecoming that Christ should suffer Himself

to be tempted by the devil.

Obj. 3: Further, temptation is from a threefold source--the flesh,

the world, and the devil. But Christ was not tempted either by the

flesh or by the world. Therefore neither should He have been tempted

by the devil.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Matt. 4:1): "Jesus was led by the

Spirit into the desert to be tempted by the devil."

_I answer that,_ Christ wished to be tempted; first that He might

strengthen us against temptations. Hence Gregory says in a homily

(xvi in Evang.): "It was not unworthy of our Redeemer to wish to be

tempted, who came also to be slain; in order that by His temptations

He might conquer our temptations, just as by His death He overcame

our death."

Secondly, that we might be warned, so that none, however holy, may

think himself safe or free from temptation. Wherefore also He wished

to be tempted after His baptism, because, as Hilary says (Super

Matth., cap. iii.): "The temptations of the devil assail those

principally who are sanctified, for he desires, above all, to

overcome the holy. Hence also it is written (Ecclus. 2): Son, when

thou comest to the service of God, stand in justice and in fear, and

prepare thy soul for temptation."

Thirdly, in order to give us an example: to teach us, to wit, how to

overcome the temptations of the devil. Hence Augustine says (De Trin.

iv) that Christ "allowed Himself to be tempted" by the devil, "that

He might be our Mediator in overcoming temptations, not only by

helping us, but also by giving us an example."

Fourthly, in order to fill us with confidence in His mercy. Hence it

is written (Heb. 4:15): "We have not a high-priest, who cannot have

compassion on our infirmities, but one tempted in all things like as

we are, without sin."

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei ix): "Christ was known

to the demons only so far as He willed; not as the Author of eternal

life, but as the cause of certain temporal effects," from which they

formed a certain conjecture that Christ was the Son of God. But since

they also observed in Him certain signs of human frailty, they did

not know for certain that He was the Son of God: wherefore (the

devil) wished to tempt Him. This is implied by the words of Matt.

4:2, 3, saying that, after "He was hungry, the tempter" came "to

Him," because, as Hilary says (Super Matth., cap. iii), "Had not

Christ's weakness in hungering betrayed His human nature, the devil

would not have dared to tempt Him." Moreover, this appears from the

very manner of the temptation, when he said: "If Thou be the Son of

God." Which words Ambrose explains as follows (In Luc. iv): "What

means this way of addressing Him, save that, though he knew that the

Son of God was to come, yet he did not think that He had come in the

weakness of the flesh?"

Reply Obj. 2: Christ came to destroy the works of the devil, not by

powerful deeds, but rather by suffering from him and his members, so

as to conquer the devil by righteousness, not by power; thus

Augustine says (De Trin. xiii) that "the devil was to be overcome,

not by the power of God, but by righteousness." And therefore in

regard to Christ's temptation we must consider what He did of His own

will and what He suffered from the devil. For that He allowed Himself

to be tempted was due to His own will. Wherefore it is written (Matt.

4:1): "Jesus was led by the Spirit into the desert, to be tempted by

the devil"; and Gregory (Hom. xvi in Evang.) says this is to be

understood of the Holy Ghost, to wit, that "thither did His Spirit

lead Him, where the wicked spirit would find Him and tempt Him." But

He suffered from the devil in being "taken up" on to "the pinnacle of

the Temple" and again "into a very high mountain." Nor is it strange,

as Gregory observes, "that He allowed Himself to be taken by him on

to a mountain, who allowed Himself to be crucified by His members."

And we understand Him to have been taken up by the devil, not, as it

were, by force, but because, as Origen says (Hom. xxi super Luc.),

"He followed Him in the course of His temptation like a wrestler

advancing of his own accord."

Reply Obj. 3: As the Apostle says (Heb. 4:15), Christ wished to be

"tempted in all things, without sin." Now temptation which comes from

an enemy can be without sin: because it comes about by merely outward

suggestion. But temptation which comes from the flesh cannot be

without sin, because such a temptation is caused by pleasure and

concupiscence; and, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix), "it is not

without sin that 'the flesh desireth against the spirit.'" And hence

Christ wished to be tempted by an enemy, but not by the flesh.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 280 / 654 题