Whether Christ Was Baptized at a Fitting Time?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ was baptized at an unfitting
time. For Christ was baptized in order that He might lead others to
baptism by His example. But it is commendable that the faithful of
Christ should be baptized, not merely before their thirtieth year,
but even in infancy. Therefore it seems that Christ should not have
been baptized at the age of thirty.
Obj. 2: Further, we do not read that Christ taught or worked miracles
before being baptized. But it would have been more profitable to the
world if He had taught for a longer time, beginning at the age of
twenty, or even before. Therefore it seems that Christ, who came for
man's profit, should have been baptized before His thirtieth year.
Obj. 3: Further, the sign of wisdom infused by God should have been
especially manifest in Christ. But in the case of Daniel this was
manifested at the time of his boyhood; according to Dan. 13:45: "The
Lord raised up the holy spirit of a young boy, whose name was
Daniel." Much more, therefore, should Christ have been baptized or
have taught in His boyhood.
Obj. 4: Further, John's baptism was ordered to that of Christ as to
its end. But "the end is first in intention and last in execution."
Therefore He should have been baptized by John either before all the
others, or after them.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Luke 3:21): "It came to pass, when
all the people were baptized, that Jesus also being baptized, and
praying;" and further on (Luke 3:23): "And Jesus Himself was
beginning about the age of thirty years."
_I answer that,_ Christ was fittingly baptized in His thirtieth year.
First, because Christ was baptized as though for the reason that He
was about forthwith to begin to teach and preach: for which purpose
perfect age is required, such as is the age of thirty. Thus we read
(Gen. 41:46) that "Joseph was thirty" years old when he undertook the
government of Egypt. In like manner we read (2 Kings 5:4) that "David
was thirty years old when he began to reign." Again, Ezechiel began
to prophesy in "his thirtieth year," as we read Ezech. 1:1.
Secondly, because, as Chrysostom says (Hom. x in Matth.), "the law
was about to pass away after Christ's baptism: wherefore Christ came
to be baptized at this age which admits of all sins; in order that by
His observing the law, no one might say that because He Himself could
not fulfil it, He did away with it."
Thirdly, because by Christ's being baptized at the perfect age, we
are given to understand that baptism brings forth perfect men,
according to Eph. 4:13: "Until we all meet into the unity of faith,
and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the
measure of the age of the fulness of Christ." Hence the very property
of the number seems to point to this. For thirty is product of three
and ten: and by the number three is implied faith in the Trinity,
while ten signifies the fulfilment of the commandments of the Law: in
which two things the perfection of Christian life consists.
Reply Obj. 1: As Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xl), Christ was
baptized, not "as though He needed to be cleansed, or as though some
peril threatened Him if He delayed to be baptized. But no small
danger besets any other man who departs from this life without being
clothed with the garment of incorruptibility"--namely, grace. And
though it be a good thing to remain clean after baptism, "yet is it
still better," as he says, "to be slightly sullied now and then than
to be altogether deprived of grace."
Reply Obj. 2: The profit which accrues to men from Christ is
chiefly through faith and humility: to both of which He conduced by
beginning to teach not in His boyhood or youth, but at the perfect
age. To faith, because in this manner His human nature is shown to be
real, by its making bodily progress with the advance of time; and lest
this progress should be deemed imaginary, He did not wish to show His
wisdom and power before His body had reached the perfect age: to
humility, lest anyone should presume to govern or teach others before
attaining to perfect age.
Reply Obj. 3: Christ was set before men as an example to all.
Wherefore it behooved that to be shown forth in Him, which is becoming
to all according to the common law--namely, that He should teach
after reaching the perfect age. But, as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat.
xxxix), that which seldom occurs is not the law of the Church; as
"neither does one swallow make the spring." For by special
dispensation, in accordance with the ruling of Divine wisdom, it has
been granted to some, contrary to the common law, to exercise the
functions of governing or teaching, such as Solomon, Daniel, and
Jeremias.
Reply Obj. 4: It was not fitting that Christ should be baptized by
John either before or after all others. Because, as Chrysostom says
(Hom. iv in Matth. [*From the supposititious Opus Imperfectum]), for
this was Christ baptized, "that He might confirm the preaching and
the baptism of John, and that John might bear witness to Him." Now,
men would not have had faith in John's testimony except after many
had been baptized by him. Consequently it was not fitting that John
should baptize Him before baptizing anyone else. In like manner,
neither was it fitting that he should baptize Him last. For as he
(Chrysostom) says in the same passage: "As the light of the sun does
not wait for the setting of the morning star, but comes forth while
the latter is still above the horizon, and by its brilliance dims its
shining: so Christ did not wait till John had run his course, but
appeared while he was yet teaching and baptizing."
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