Whether It Was Fitting for Christ to Be Baptized with John's Baptism?
Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for Christ to be
baptized with John's baptism. For John's baptism was the "baptism of
penance." But penance is unbecoming to Christ, since He had no sin.
Therefore it seems that He should not have been baptized with John's
baptism.
Obj. 2: Further, John's baptism, as Chrysostom says (Hom. de Bapt.
Christi), "was a mean between the baptism of the Jews and that of
Christ." But "the mean savors of the nature of the extremes"
(Aristotle, De Partib. Animal.). Since, therefore, Christ was not
baptized with the Jewish baptism, nor yet with His own, on the same
grounds He should not have been baptized with the baptism of John.
Obj. 3: Further, whatever is best in human things should be ascribed
to Christ. But John's baptism does not hold the first place among
baptisms. Therefore it was not fitting for Christ to be baptized with
John's baptism.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Matt. 3:13) that "Jesus cometh to
the Jordan, unto John, to be baptized by him."
_I answer that,_ As Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. xiii): "After
being baptized, the Lord baptized, not with that baptism wherewith He
was baptized." Wherefore, since He Himself baptized with His own
baptism, it follows that He was not baptized with His own, but with
John's baptism. And this was befitting: first, because John's baptism
was peculiar in this, that he baptized, not in the Spirit, but only
"in water"; while Christ did not need spiritual baptism, since He was
filled with the grace of the Holy Ghost from the beginning of His
conception, as we have made clear above (Q. 34, A. 1). And this is
the reason given by Chrysostom (Hom. de Bapt. Christi). Secondly, as
Bede says on Mk. 1:9, He was baptized with the baptism of John, that,
"by being thus baptized, He might show His approval of John's
baptism." Thirdly, as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix), "by going
to John to be baptized by him, He sanctified baptism."
Reply Obj. 1: As stated above (A. 1), Christ wished to be baptized in
order by His example to lead us to baptism. And so, in order that He
might lead us thereto more efficaciously, He wished to be baptized
with a baptism which He clearly needed not, that men who needed it
might approach unto it. Wherefore Ambrose says on Luke 3:21: "Let
none decline the laver of grace, since Christ did not refuse the
laver of penance."
Reply Obj. 2: The Jewish baptism prescribed by the law was merely
figurative, whereas John's baptism, in a measure, was real, inasmuch
as it induced men to refrain from sin; but Christ's baptism is
efficacious unto the remission of sin and the conferring of grace.
Now Christ needed neither the remission of sin, which was not in Him,
nor the bestowal of grace, with which He was filled. Moreover, since
He is "the Truth," it was not fitting that He should receive that
which was no more than a figure. Consequently it was more fitting
that He should receive the intermediate baptism than one of the
extremes.
Reply Obj. 3: Baptism is a spiritual remedy. Now, the more perfect a
thing is, the less remedy does it need. Consequently, from the very
fact that Christ is most perfect, it follows that it was fitting that
He should not receive the most perfect baptism: just as one who is
healthy does not need a strong medicine.
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