Whether It Was Fitting That the Mother of God Should Go to the Temple
to Be Purified?
Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for the Mother of
God to go to the Temple to be purified. For purification presupposes
uncleanness. But there was no uncleanness in the Blessed Virgin, as
stated above (QQ. 27, 28). Therefore she should not have gone to the
Temple to be purified.
Obj. 2: Further, it is written (Lev. 12:2-4): "If a woman, having
received seed, shall bear a man-child, she shall be unclean seven
days"; and consequently she is forbidden "to enter into the sanctuary
until the days of her purification be fulfilled." But the Blessed
Virgin brought forth a male child without receiving the seed of man.
Therefore she had no need to come to the Temple to be purified.
Obj. 3: Further, purification from uncleanness is accomplished by
grace alone. But the sacraments of the Old Law did not confer grace;
rather, indeed, did she have the very Author of grace with her.
Therefore it was not fitting that the Blessed Virgin should come to
the Temple to be purified.
On the contrary is the authority of Scripture, where it is stated
(Luke 2:22) that "the days of" Mary's "purification were accomplished
according to the law of Moses."
_I answer that,_ As the fulness of grace flowed from Christ on to His
Mother, so it was becoming that the mother should be like her Son in
humility: for "God giveth grace to the humble," as is written James
4:6. And therefore, just as Christ, though not subject to the Law,
wished, nevertheless, to submit to circumcision and the other burdens
of the Law, in order to give an example of humility and obedience;
and in order to show His approval of the Law; and, again, in order to
take away from the Jews an excuse for calumniating Him: for the same
reasons He wished His Mother also to fulfil the prescriptions of the
Law, to which, nevertheless, she was not subject.
Reply Obj. 1: Although the Blessed Virgin had no uncleanness, yet she
wished to fulfil the observance of purification, not because she
needed it, but on account of the precept of the Law. Thus the
Evangelist says pointedly that the days of her purification
"according to the Law" were accomplished; for she needed no
purification in herself.
Reply Obj. 2: Moses seems to have chosen his words in order to
exclude uncleanness from the Mother of God, who was with child
"without receiving seed." It is therefore clear that she was not
bound to fulfil that precept, but fulfilled the observance of
purification of her own accord, as stated above.
Reply Obj. 3: The sacraments of the Law did not cleanse from the
uncleanness of sin which is accomplished by grace, but they
foreshadowed this purification: for they cleansed by a kind of carnal
purification, from the uncleanness of a certain irregularity, as
stated in the Second Part (I-II, Q. 102, A. 5; Q. 103, A. 2). But the
Blessed Virgin contracted neither uncleanness, and consequently did
not need to be purified.
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