Whether There Was Sin in Christ?
Objection 1: It would seem that there was sin in Christ. For it is
written (Ps. 21:2): "O God, My God . . . why hast Thou forsaken Me?
Far from My salvation are the words of My sins." Now these words are
said in the person of Christ Himself, as appears from His having
uttered them on the cross. Therefore it would seem that in Christ
there were sins.
Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says (Rom. 5:12) that "in Adam all have
sinned"--namely, because all were in Adam by origin. Now Christ also
was in Adam by origin. Therefore He sinned in him.
Obj. 3: Further, the Apostle says (Heb. 2:18) that "in that, wherein
He Himself hath suffered and been tempted, He is able to succor them
also that are tempted." Now above all do we require His help against
sin. Therefore it seems that there was sin in Him.
Obj. 4: Further, it is written (2 Cor. 5:21) that "Him that knew no
sin" (i.e. Christ), "for us" God "hath made sin." But that really is,
which has been made by God. Therefore there was really sin in Christ.
Obj. 5: Further, as Augustine says (De Agone Christ. xi), "in the man
Christ the Son of God gave Himself to us as a pattern of living." Now
man needs a pattern not merely of right living, but also of
repentance for sin. Therefore it seems that in Christ there ought to
have been sin, that He might repent of His sin, and thus afford us a
pattern of repentance.
_On the contrary,_ He Himself says (John 8:46): "Which of you shall
convince Me of sin?"
_I answer that,_ As was said above (Q. 14, A. 1), Christ assumed our
defects that He might satisfy for us, that He might prove the truth
of His human nature, and that He might become an example of virtue to
us. Now it is plain that by reason of these three things He ought not
to have assumed the defect of sin. First, because sin nowise works
our satisfaction; rather, it impedes the power of satisfying, since,
as it is written (Ecclus. 34:23), "The Most High approveth not the
gifts of the wicked." Secondly, the truth of His human nature is not
proved by sin, since sin does not belong to human nature, whereof God
is the cause; but rather has been sown in it against its nature by
the devil, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 20). Thirdly,
because by sinning He could afford no example of virtue, since sin is
opposed to virtue. Hence Christ nowise assumed the defect of
sin--either original or actual--according to what is written (1 Pet.
2:22): "Who did no sin, neither was guile found in His mouth."
Reply Obj. 1: As Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 25), things are
said of Christ, first, with reference to His natural and hypostatic
property, as when it is said that God became man, and that He
suffered for us; secondly, with reference to His personal and
relative property, when things are said of Him in our person which
nowise belong to Him of Himself. Hence, in the seven rules of
Tichonius which Augustine quotes in _De Doctr. Christ._ iii, 31, the
first regards "Our Lord and His Body," since "Christ and His Church
are taken as one person." And thus Christ, speaking in the person of
His members, says (Ps. 21:2): "The words of My sins"--not that there
were any sins in the Head.
Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. x, 20), Christ was in
Adam and the other fathers not altogether as we were. For we were in
Adam as regards both seminal virtue and bodily substance, since, as
he goes on to say: "As in the seed there is a visible bulk and an
invisible virtue, both have come from Adam. Now Christ took the
visible substance of His flesh from the Virgin's flesh; but the
virtue of His conception did not spring from the seed of man, but far
otherwise--from on high." Hence He was not in Adam according to
seminal virtue, but only according to bodily substance. And therefore
Christ did not receive human nature from Adam actively, but only
materially--and from the Holy Ghost actively; even as Adam received
his body materially from the slime of the earth--actively from God.
And thus Christ did not sin in Adam, in whom He was only as regards
His matter.
Reply Obj. 3: In His temptation and passion Christ has succored us by
satisfying for us. Now sin does not further satisfaction, but hinders
it, as has been said. Hence, it behooved Him not to have sin, but to
be wholly free from sin; otherwise the punishment He bore would have
been due to Him for His own sin.
Reply Obj. 4: God "made Christ sin"--not, indeed, in such sort that
He had sin, but that He made Him a sacrifice for sin: even as it is
written (Osee 4:8): "They shall eat the sins of My people"--they,
i.e. the priests, who by the law ate the sacrifices offered for sin.
And in that way it is written (Isa. 53:6) that "the Lord hath laid on
Him the iniquity of us all" (i.e. He gave Him up to be a victim for
the sins of all men); or "He made Him sin" (i.e. made Him to have
"the likeness of sinful flesh"), as is written (Rom. 8:3), and this
on account of the passible and mortal body He assumed.
Reply Obj. 5: A penitent can give a praiseworthy example, not by
having sinned, but by freely bearing the punishment of sin. And hence
Christ set the highest example to penitents, since He willingly bore
the punishment, not of His own sin, but of the sins of others.
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