FOURTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 7. Art. 4]

Whether in Christ There Was Hope?

Objection 1: It would seem that there was hope in Christ. For it is

said in the Person of Christ (Ps. 30:1): "In Thee, O Lord, have I

hoped." But the virtue of hope is that whereby a man hopes in God.

Therefore the virtue of hope was in Christ.

Obj. 2: Further, hope is the expectation of the bliss to come, as was

shown above (II-II, Q. 17, A. 5, ad 3). But Christ awaited something

pertaining to bliss, viz. the glorifying of His body. Therefore it

seems there was hope in Him.

Obj. 3: Further, everyone may hope for what pertains to his

perfection, if it has yet to come. But there was something still to

come pertaining to Christ's perfection, according to Eph. 4:12: "For

the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the

building up [Douay: 'edifying'] of the body of Christ." Hence it

seems that it befitted Christ to have hope.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Rom. 8:24): "What a man seeth, why

doth he hope for?" Thus it is clear that as faith is of the unseen,

so also is hope. But there was no faith in Christ, as was said above

(A. 1): neither, consequently, was there hope.

_I answer that,_ As it is of the nature of faith that one assents to

what one sees not, so is it of the nature of hope that one expects

what as yet one has not; and as faith, forasmuch as it is a

theological virtue, does not regard everything unseen, but only God;

so likewise hope, as a theological virtue, has God Himself for its

object, the fruition of Whom man chiefly expects by the virtue of

hope; yet, in consequence, whoever has the virtue of hope may expect

the Divine aid in other things, even as he who has the virtue of

faith believes God not only in Divine things, but even in whatsoever

is divinely revealed. Now from the beginning of His conception Christ

had the Divine fruition fully, as will be shown (Q. 34, A. 4), and

hence he had not the virtue of hope. Nevertheless He had hope as

regards such things as He did not yet possess, although He had not

faith with regard to anything; because, although He knew all things

fully, wherefore faith was altogether wanting to Him, nevertheless He

did not as yet fully possess all that pertained to His perfection,

viz. immortality and glory of the body, which He could hope for.

Reply Obj. 1: This is said of Christ with reference to hope, not as a

theological virtue, but inasmuch as He hoped for some other things

not yet possessed, as was said above.

Reply Obj. 2: The glory of the body does not pertain to beatitude as

being that in which beatitude principally consists, but by a certain

outpouring from the soul's glory, as was said above (I-II, Q. 4, A.

6). Hence hope, as a theological virtue, does not regard the bliss of

the body but the soul's bliss, which consists in the Divine fruition.

Reply Obj. 3: The building up of the church by the conversion of the

faithful does not pertain to the perfection of Christ, whereby He is

perfect in Himself, but inasmuch as it leads others to a share of His

perfection. And because hope properly regards what is expected by him

who hopes, the virtue of hope cannot properly be said to be in

Christ, because of the aforesaid reason.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 61 / 654 题