SHAKSPEARE'S USE OF "DELIGHTED."

Although Dr. Kennedy does not think I have discovered the source from

whence Shakspeare's word _delighted_ is derived, I am gratified to find

that he concurs with me in drawing a distinction between this and the

more common word. His failure to convince me is a source almost of

regret, so happy do I regard the derivation he proposes in the last

passage cited. But in the passage from _Measure for Measure_, it does

not appear to me to express the sense which I deduce from the context;

and as I look upon the word in question as the same in each of the three

passages, I feel more inclined to adhere to my view, that it is a word

of English manufacture, according to the analogy referred to. I express

my opinion with hesitation and there can be no doubt the question is

deserving of full and attentive consideration.

Strengthened, however, in my main purpose, which was to show that

Shakspeare did not use _delighted_ in the ordinary sense of _highly

gratified_, I am better prepared to meet MR. HALLIWELL. This gentleman

does me no more than justice in the remark, not expressed, though, I

hope, implied, that I would not knowingly make use of an offensive

expression towards him or any living man; and I appreciate the courtesy

with which he has sweetened the uncomplimentary things he has felt

constrained to say of me. I trust it will be found that I can repay his

courtesy and imitate his forbearance. As a preliminary remark, however,

I must say that MR. HALLIWELL, in his haste, has confounded the "cool

impertinence" for which I censured one editor, with the "cool

correction" which was made by another; and, moreover, has referred the

remark to _Measure for Measure_, which I applied to the notes to the

passage in _Othello_. As I have not yet learned to regard the term

"delightful" as an _active participle_, it is evident that, however

"cool" I may consider the correction, I have not called it an

"impertinence." But he has no mind that I should escape so easily; and

therefore, like a true knight-errant, he adopts the cause without

hesitation, as though to be first satisfied of its goodness would be

quite inconsistent in its champion.

When I am charged with an "entire want of acquaintance with the

grammatical system" employed by Shakspeare, I might take exception to

the omission of the words "as understood by Mr. Halliwell," this

gentleman assuming the very point in question between us. I believe he

has paid particular attention to this subject; but he must not conclude

that all who presume to differ from him "judge Shakspeare's grammar by

Cobbett or Murray." And if I were disposed to indulge in as sweeping an

expression, I should say that the remark excites a suspicion of the

writer's want of acquaintance with the spirit of Shakspeare's works. I

do not think so, though I think MR. HALLIWELL has formed his opinion

hastily; and I think, moreover, that before I have ended, I shall

convince him that it would not have been amiss had he exercised a little

more reflection ere he began. In the passage in _Othello_, I object to

the substitution of _delighting_ or _delightful_ for _delighted_, as

_weak_ epithets, and such as I do not believe that Shakespeare would

have used. It was not as a schoolmaster or grammarian, but in reference

to the peculiar fitness and force of his expressions, and his perfect

acquaintance with the powers of the English language, and his _mastery_

over it, that I called Shakespeare its greatest master.

But to return to the first passage I cited--that from _Measure for

Measure_,--MR. HALLIWELL will be surprised to find that in the _only_

remark I made {184} upon it as it stands he actually agrees with me. I

said that the passage "in our sense of the term" is unintelligible. I

still say so; and he who attempts to mend it, or modernise the form,

says so too. The question next arises, Does he not mean _no system_,

when he says _system_? Otherwise, why does he say that Shakspeare uses

the passive for the active participle, when he explains the word not by

the active participle, but by an adjective of totally different meaning?

Is it not more likely that MR. HALLIWELL may have misunderstood

Shakspeare's system, than that the latter should have used intelligible

words, and precise forms of words, so at random? And, moreover, does not

the critic confound two meanings of the word _delightful_; the one

obsolete, _full of delight_, the other the common one, _giving delight_,

or _gratifying_?

Now by a violent figure which Shakspeare sometimes uses, _delighted may_

mean _delightful_ in the _former_ sense; perhaps, rather, _filled with

delight_. The word then would be formed directly from the noun, and must

not be regarded as a participle at all, but rather an ellipsis, from

which the verb (which may be represented by _give_, _fill_, _endow_,

&c.) is omitted. Take, as an instance, this passage in _Measure for

Measure_:--

"_Clau._ Death is a fearful thing!

"_Isa._ And _shamed_ life a hateful."

The meaning here is not _life ashamed_, but _life covered with shame_.

In this sense MR. HALLIWELL, apparently without knowing why, has adopted

the term _delightful_; but then the two succeeding words of his

explanation, "sweet, pleasant", he would appear to have taken at random

from a dictionary, forgetting that he was not using the word in its

ordinary sense; for it is not possible that he can suppose Shakspeare to

have used the word in the sense of the active participle. Now, though I

do not think this at all the expression that Shakspeare would use, it is

undoubtedly allowable as a general characteristic; but the word actually

used would appear to imply the result of a particular action, which

would have been productive of anything but delight. In short, as we are

agreed that the word _delighted_ in the passage in question in its

present sense is unintelligible, so also are we, I think, agreed that

the substitute, if any, must be used in a passive sense.

Now, with regard to the first instance furnished by MR. HALLIWELL of the

use of the passive for the active participle, if I were sure that the

delinquent were well out of hearing, and not likely "to rise again and

push us from our stools," I should be disposed to repeat the charge of

impertinence against the editor who altered "professed" to "professing".

The word _professed_ is one of common use, and in the present instance

perfectly intelligible. "To your bosom, _professed_ to entertain so much

love and care for our father, I commit him," seems to express the sense

of the passage: a doubt is implied by the expression, but there is a

directness of insult in the term _professing_ quite inconsistent with

the character of Cordelia.

"Becomed love" is love suited or fitted to the occasion. The use of the

passive participle is every way more appropriate than that of the

active, though the latter is more common now.

In the next instance, I have to observe that there is no such verb as

_to guile_. _Guile_ is a noun; and "guiled shore" is _guile-covered_, or

_charactered shore_. According to this rule, the modern word _talented_,

that is, _talent-endowed_, has been formed, it not having been

considered that licences are allowed in poetry that are unsuited to

ordinary language.

The passage next referred to is conditional, and I regard the use of the

passive participle here, too, as correct.

I have thus reduced MR. HALLIWELL'S list to that number which usually

forms the exception rather than the rule; and if accident, misprint,

error in copying, or other special circumstance be not held sufficient

to account for the single remaining instance, I have then only to say

that I prefer _deformed_ to _deforming_, as an epithet applied

disparagingly to Time's hand as more in accordance with Shakspeare's

practice, who was not in the habit of repeating the same idea, which, in

the latter case, would occur again in the word "defeatures" in the

following line.

MR. HALLIWELL may, doubtless find other instances, perhaps more

felicitous than these; at present, all I can say is that he has failed

to show that the use of the passive for the active participle was common

with Shakspeare. As to other variations between the grammatical usage of

Shakspeare's day and that of our own, I call assure him that I am not

quite so ignorant of the fact as he imagines.

Notes and Queries, Number 42, August 17, 1850 · 第 27 / 69 题