Whether Those Who Received the Gift of Tongues Spoke in Every
Language?
Objection 1: It seems that those who received the gift of tongues did
not speak in every language. For that which is granted to certain
persons by the divine power is the best of its kind: thus our Lord
turned the water into good wine, as stated in John 2:10. Now those
who had the gift of tongues spoke better in their own language; since
a gloss on Heb. 1, says that "it is not surprising that the epistle
to the Hebrews is more graceful in style than the other epistles,
since it is natural for a man to have more command over his own than
over a strange language. For the Apostle wrote the other epistles in
a foreign, namely the Greek, idiom; whereas he wrote this in the
Hebrew tongue." Therefore the apostles did not receive the knowledge
of all languages by a gratuitous grace.
Obj. 2: Further, nature does not employ many means where one is
sufficient; and much less does God Whose work is more orderly than
nature's. Now God could make His disciples to be understood by all,
while speaking one tongue: hence a gloss on Acts 2:6, "Every man
heard them speak in his own tongue," says that "they spoke in every
tongue, or speaking in their own, namely the Hebrew language, were
understood by all, as though they spoke the language proper to each."
Therefore it would seem that they had not the knowledge to speak in
all languages.
Obj. 3: Further, all graces flow from Christ to His body, which is
the Church, according to John 1:16, "Of His fullness we all have
received." Now we do not read that Christ spoke more than one
language, nor does each one of the faithful now speak save in one
tongue. Therefore it would seem that Christ's disciples did not
receive the grace to the extent of speaking in all languages.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Acts 2:4) that "they were all
filled with the Holy Ghost, and they began to speak with divers
tongues, according as the Holy Ghost gave them to speak"; on which
passage a gloss of Gregory [*Hom. xxx in Ev.] says that "the Holy
Ghost appeared over the disciples under the form of fiery tongues,
and gave them the knowledge of all tongues."
_I answer that,_ Christ's first disciples were chosen by Him in order
that they might disperse throughout the whole world, and preach His
faith everywhere, according to Matt. 28:19, "Going . . . teach ye all
nations." Now it was not fitting that they who were being sent to
teach others should need to be taught by others, either as to how
they should speak to other people, or as to how they were to
understand those who spoke to them; and all the more seeing that
those who were being sent were of one nation, that of Judea,
according to Isa. 27:6, "When they shall rush out from Jacob [*Vulg.:
'When they shall rush in unto Jacob,' etc.] . . . they shall fill
the face of the world with seed." Moreover those who were being sent
were poor and powerless; nor at the outset could they have easily
found someone to interpret their words faithfully to others, or to
explain what others said to them, especially as they were sent to
unbelievers. Consequently it was necessary, in this respect, that God
should provide them with the gift of tongues; in order that, as the
diversity of tongues was brought upon the nations when they fell away
to idolatry, according to Gen. 11, so when the nations were to be
recalled to the worship of one God a remedy to this diversity might
be applied by the gift of tongues.
Reply Obj. 1: As it is written (1 Cor. 12:7), "the manifestation of
the Spirit is given to every man unto profit"; and consequently both
Paul and the other apostles were divinely instructed in the languages
of all nations sufficiently for the requirements of the teaching of
the faith. But as regards the grace and elegance of style which human
art adds to a language, the Apostle was instructed in his own, but
not in a foreign tongue. Even so they were sufficiently instructed in
wisdom and scientific knowledge, as required for teaching the faith,
but not as to all things known by acquired science, for instance the
conclusions of arithmetic and geometry.
Reply Obj. 2: Although either was possible, namely that, while
speaking in one tongue they should be understood by all, or that they
should speak in all tongues, it was more fitting that they should
speak in all tongues, because this pertained to the perfection of
their knowledge, whereby they were able not only to speak, but also
to understand what was said by others. Whereas if their one language
were intelligible to all, this would either have been due to the
knowledge of those who understood their speech, or it would have
amounted to an illusion, since a man's words would have had a
different sound in another's ears, from that with which they were
uttered. Hence a gloss says on Acts 2:6 that "it was a greater
miracle that they should speak all kinds of tongues"; and Paul says
(1 Cor. 14:18): "I thank my God I speak with all your tongues."
Reply Obj. 3: Christ in His own person purposed preaching to only one
nation, namely the Jews. Consequently, although without any doubt He
possessed most perfectly the knowledge of all languages, there was no
need for Him to speak in every tongue. And therefore, as Augustine
says (Tract. xxxii in Joan.), "whereas even now the Holy Ghost is
received, yet no one speaks in the tongues of all nations, because
the Church herself already speaks the languages of all nations: since
whoever is not in the Church, receives not the Holy Ghost."
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