Whether Free-will Is a Power Distinct from the Will?
Objection 1: It would seem that free-will is a power distinct from the
will. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 22) that _thelesis_ is one
thing and _boulesis_ another. But _thelesis_ is the will, while
_boulesis_ seems to be the free-will, because _boulesis,_ according to
him, is will as concerning an object by way of comparison between two
things. Therefore it seems that free-will is a distinct power from the
will.
Obj. 2: Further, powers are known by their acts. But choice, which is
the act of free-will, is distinct from the act of willing, because
"the act of the will regards the end, whereas choice regards the
means to the end" (Ethic. iii, 2). Therefore free-will is a distinct
power from the will.
Obj. 3: Further, the will is the intellectual appetite. But in the
intellect there are two powers--the active and the passive.
Therefore, also on the part of the intellectual appetite, there must
be another power besides the will. And this, seemingly, can only be
free-will. Therefore free-will is a distinct power from the will.
_On the contrary,_ Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 14) free-will
is nothing else than the will.
_I answer that,_ The appetitive powers must be proportionate to the
apprehensive powers, as we have said above (Q. 64, A. 2). Now, as on
the part of the intellectual apprehension we have intellect and
reason, so on the part of the intellectual appetite we have will, and
free-will which is nothing else but the power of choice. And this is
clear from their relations to their respective objects and acts. For
the act of _understanding_ implies the simple acceptation of
something; whence we say that we understand first principles, which
are known of themselves without any comparison. But to _reason,_
properly speaking, is to come from one thing to the knowledge of
another: wherefore, properly speaking, we reason about conclusions,
which are known from the principles. In like manner on the part of
the appetite to "will" implies the simple appetite for something:
wherefore the will is said to regard the end, which is desired for
itself. But to "choose" is to desire something for the sake of
obtaining something else: wherefore, properly speaking, it regards
the means to the end. Now, in matters of knowledge, the principles
are related to the conclusion to which we assent on account of the
principles: just as, in appetitive matters, the end is related to
the means, which is desired on account of the end. Wherefore it is
evident that as the intellect is to reason, so is the will to the
power of choice, which is free-will. But it has been shown above (Q.
79, A. 8) that it belongs to the same power both to understand and to
reason, even as it belongs to the same power to be at rest and to be
in movement. Wherefore it belongs also to the same power to will and
to choose: and on this account the will and the free-will are not two
powers, but one.
Reply Obj. 1: _Boulesis_ is distinct from _thelesis_ on account of a
distinction, not of powers, but of acts.
Reply Obj. 2: Choice and will--that is, the act of willing--are
different acts: yet they belong to the same power, as also to
understand and to reason, as we have said.
Reply Obj. 3: The intellect is compared to the will as moving the
will. And therefore there is no need to distinguish in the will an
active and a passive will.
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