SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 6]

Whether the Son Is Equal to the Father in Power?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Son is not equal to the Father

in power. For it is said (John 5:19): "The Son cannot do anything of

Himself but what He seeth the Father doing." But the Father can act

of Himself. Therefore the Father's power is greater than the Son's.

Obj. 2: Further, greater is the power of him who commands and teaches

than of him who obeys and hears. But the Father commands the Son

according to John 14:31: "As the Father gave Me commandment so do I."

The Father also teaches the Son: "The Father loveth the Son, and

showeth Him all things that Himself doth" (John 5:20). Also, the Son

hears: "As I hear, so I judge" (John 5:30). Therefore the Father has

greater power than the Son.

Obj. 3: Further, it belongs to the Father's omnipotence to be able to

beget a Son equal to Himself. For Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii,

7), "Were He unable to beget one equal to Himself, where would be the

omnipotence of God the Father?" But the Son cannot beget a Son, as

proved above (Q. 41, A. 6). Therefore the Son cannot do all that

belongs to the Father's omnipotence; and hence He is not equal to Him

power.

_On the contrary,_ It is said (John 5:19): "Whatsoever things the

Father doth, these the Son also doth in like manner."

_I answer that,_ The Son is necessarily equal to the Father in power.

Power of action is a consequence of perfection in nature. In

creatures, for instance, we see that the more perfect the nature, the

greater power is there for action. Now it was shown above (A. 4) that

the very notion of the divine paternity and filiation requires that

the Son should be the Father's equal in greatness--that is, in

perfection of nature. Hence it follows that the Son is equal to the

Father in power; and the same applies to the Holy Ghost in relation

to both.

Reply Obj. 1: The words, "the Son cannot of Himself do anything," do

not withdraw from the Son any power possessed by the Father, since it

is immediately added, "Whatsoever things the Father doth, the Son

doth in like manner"; but their meaning is to show that the Son

derives His power from the Father, of Whom He receives His nature.

Hence, Hilary says (De Trin. ix), "The unity of the divine nature

implies that the Son so acts of Himself [per se], that He does not

act by Himself [a se]."

Reply Obj. 2: The Father's "showing" and the Son's "hearing" are to

be taken in the sense that the Father communicates knowledge to the

Son, as He communicates His essence. The command of the Father can be

explained in the same sense, as giving Him from eternity knowledge

and will to act, by begetting Him. Or, better still, this may be

referred to Christ in His human nature.

Reply Obj. 3: As the same essence is paternity in the Father, and

filiation in the Son: so by the same power the Father begets, and the

Son is begotten. Hence it is clear that the Son can do whatever the

Father can do; yet it does not follow that the Son can beget; for to

argue thus would imply transition from substance to relation, for

generation signifies a divine relation. So the Son has the same

omnipotence as the Father, but with another relation; the Father

possessing power as "giving" signified when we say that He is able to

beget; while the Son possesses the power of "receiving," signified by

saying that He can be begotten.

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Summa Theologica, Part I (Prima Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 287 / 722 题