But in Tyndal's gospel we read

Why seest thou a mote in thy brother's eye and perceivest not

the beam that is in thine own eye?

The word beam is especially awkward here,[3] because the beam that

is proper to the eye is not the kind of beam which is intended.

The absurdity is not excused by our familiarity, which Shakespeare

submitted to, though he omits the incriminating eye:

You found his mote; the king your mote did see,

But I a beam do find in each of three.

[Footnote 3: It is probable that in Tyndal's time the awkwardness was

not so glaring: for 'beam' as a ray of light seems to have developed

its connexion with the eye since his date, in spite of his proverbial

use of it in the other sense.]

On English Homophones Society for Pure English, Tract 02 · 第 8 / 33 题