FIRST QUESTION IS, WHEN WAS THE SABBATH INSTITUTED?

Those who are in the habit of reading the Scriptures just as they find

them, and of understanding them according to the established rules of

interpretation, will never be at a loss to understand so plain a passage

as the following: "And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it;

because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and

made." Gen. ii: 3. Moses, when referring to it, says to the children of

Israel, "This is that which the Lord hath _said_, to-morrow is the REST

of _the_ holy Sabbath unto the Lord." Exod. xvi: 23.

Then we understand that God established the seventh day Sabbath in

Paradise, on the very day when he rested from all his work, and not one

week, nor one year, nor two thousand five hundred and fourteen years

afterwards, as some would have it. Is it not plain that the Sabbath was

instituted to commemorate the stupendous work of creation, and designed

by God to be celebrated by his worshipers as a weekly Sabbath, in the

same manner as the Israelites were commanded to celebrate the Passover,

from the very night of their deliverance till the resurrection of Jesus

from the dead; or as we, as a nation, annually celebrate our national

independence; or as type answers to antetype, so we believe this must

run down, to the "keeping of the Sabbath to the people of God" in the

immortal state.

It is argued by some, that because no mention is made of the Sabbath

from its institution in Paradise till the falling of the manna in the

wilderness, mentioned in Exo. xvi: 15, that it was therefore _here_

instituted for the Jews, but [4]we think there is bible argument

sufficient to sustain the reply of Jesus to the Pharisees, "that the

Sabbath was made for MAN and not man for the Sabbath." If it was made

for any one exclusively it must have been for Adam, the father of us

all, two thousand years before Abraham (who is claimed as the father of

the Jews) was born. John says, the old commandment was from the

beginning--1: ii: 7.

There is pretty strong inference that the antideluvians measured time by

weeks from the account given by Noah, when the waters of the deluge

began to subside. He "sent out a dove which soon returned." At the end

of _seven_ days he sent her out again; and at the end of _seven_ days

more, he sent her out a third time. Now why this preference for the

number _seven_? why not five or ten days, or any other number? Can it be

supposed that his fixing on upon _seven_ was accidental? How much more

natural to conclude that it was in obedience to the authority of God, as

expressed in the 2d chap. of Gen. A similar division of time is

incidentally mentioned in Gen. xxix:--"fulfill her _week_ and we will

give thee this also; and Jacob did so and fulfilled her _week_." Now the

word _week_ is every where used in Scripture as we use it; it never

means more nor less than _seven_ days (except as symbols of years) and

one of them was in all other cases the Sabbath. But now suppose there

had been an entire silence on the subject of the Sabbath for this

twenty-five hundred years, would that be sufficient evidence that there

was none. If so, we have the same evidence that there was no Sabbath

from the reign of Joshua till the reign of David, four hundred and six

years, as no mention is made of it in the history of that period. But

who can be persuaded that Samuel and the pious Judges of Israel did not

regard the Sabbath. What does God say of Abraham? that he "obeyed my

voice, and kept my charge, my _commandments_, my _statutes_ and my

_laws_." (See what he calls them in Exo. xvi: 27, 30.) This, of course,

includes the whole. Then Abraham reverenced God's Sabbath. Once more,

there is no mention of the circumcision from the days of Joshua till the

days of Jeremiah, a period of more than eight hundred years. Will it be

believed that Samuel and David, and all those pious worthies with the

whole Jewish nation, neglected that essential seal of the covenant for

eight hundred years? It cannot be admitted for a moment. How [5]then

can any one suppose from the alleged silence of the sacred history that

Adam, Enoch, Noah and Abraham, kept no Sabbath, because the fact was not

stated? If we turn to Jer. ix: 25, 26, we find that they had not

neglected this right of circumcision, only they had not circumcised

their hearts; so that the proof is clear, that silence respecting the

keeping any positive command of God, is no evidence that it is not in

full force.

Again, if the Sabbath was not instituted in Paradise, why did Moses

mention it in connection with the creation of the world? Why not reserve

this fact for two or three thousand years in his history, until the

manna fell in the wilderness, (see Exo. xvi: 23) and then state that the

seventh day Sabbath commenced, as _some_ will have it? I answer, for the

very best of reasons, that it did not commence there. Let us examine the

text. "And it came to pass, that on the sixth day they gathered twice as

much bread as on any preceding day, and _all the rulers of the

congregation came and told Moses_. And he said unto them this is that

which the Lord hath said, _to-morrow is the rest of the holy Sabbath_,

bake that which ye will bake, &c. &c." If this had been the establishing

of the holy Sabbath and Moses had said to-morrow _shall be_ the Sabbath,

then would it have been clear; but no, he speaks as familiarly about it

as we do when we say that to-morrow is the Sabbath, showing conclusively

that it was known before, or how could the people have known that they

must gather two day's manna on Friday the sixth day, unless they had had

some previous knowledge of the Sabbath? for Moses had already taught

them not to "leave any of it until the morning"--v. 19. The 20th verse

shows that the Sabbath had not yet come since their receiving the manna,

because it spoiled and "bred worms by the next morning;" whereas, on the

Sabbath morning it was found sweet and eatible--24th v. This was the

thirtieth day after leaving Egypt (1st v.) and twenty days before it was

given on Sinai. The weekly Sabbath then was appointed before this or

before the days of Moses. Where was it then? Answer, in the second

chapter of Genesis and no where else; and the same week on which the

manna fell, the weekly Sabbath was revived among or with God's chosen

people. Grotius tells us "that the memory of the creation's being

performed in seven days, was preserved not only among the Greeks and

Italians, but among the Celts and Indians." Other [6]writers say

Assyrians, Egyptians, Arabians, Britons and Germans, all of whom divide

their time into weeks. Philo says "the Sabbath is not peculiar to any

one people or country, but is common to all the world." Josephus states

"that there is no city either of Greeks or barbarians or any _other

nation_, where the religion of the Sabbath is not known." But as they,

like the great mass of God's professed people in christendom, paid

little or no heed to what God had said about the particular day, (except

the Jews, and a few others) they (as we are informed in history) adopted

peculiar days to suit themselves, viz: the christian nations chose to

obey the Pope of Rome, who changed the _seventh_ day Sabbath to the

first day, and call it the holy Sabbath; the Persians selected Monday;

the Grecians Tuesday; the Assyrians Wednesday; the Egyptians Thursday;

the Turks Friday, and the Jews the seventh day, Saturday, as God had

commanded. Three standing miracles a week, for about forty years

annually, ought to perpetuate the Sabbath. 1st, double the quantity of

manna on the sixth day; 2d, none on the seventh; 3d, did not spoil on

the seventh day. If it does not matter which day you keep holy to the

Lord, then all these nations are right. Now reflect one moment on this,

and then open your bible and read the commandment of the God of all

these nations! "REMEMBER! (what you have been taught before) _the

Sabbath day to keep it holy_;" (which day is it Lord?) "_the_ SEVENTH

_is the Sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work,

thou nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy man servant nor thy maid

servant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger, that is within thy gates_."

Who is the stranger? (Gentiles.) Now the reason for it will carry us

back again to Paradise. "_For in six days the Lord made heaven and

earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested on the_ SEVENTH;

_wherefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it_."

"Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the

_Sabbath_ throughout their generations for a _perpetual covenant_; it is

a SIGN between me and the children of Israel _forever_." (Why is it

Lord?) "_For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the_

SEVENTH _day he rested and was refreshed_." Exo. xx and xxxi. Which day

now will you choose? O, says the reader, the seventh if I knew which of

the days it was. If you don't know, why are you so sure that the _first_

day is right? O, [7]because the history of the world has settled that,

and this is the most we can know. Very well then, does not the _seventh_

come the day before the eighth? If we have not got the days of the week

right now, it is not likely that we ever shall. God does not require of

us any more than what we know; by that we shall be judged. Luke xxiii:

55, 56.

Once more: think you that the spirit of God ever directed Moses when he

was giving the history of the creation of the world, to write that he

(God) "blessed the _seventh_ day and sanctified it, because that in it

he had rested from all his work," unless he meant it to be dated from

that very day? Why, this is as clear to the unbiassed mind as it is that

God created man the sixth day. Would it not be the height of absurdity

to attempt to prove that God only intended Adam should be created at

some future period, or that the creation of the heavens and earth was

not in the beginning, but some twenty-five hundred years afterward? All

this would be as cogent reasoning as it would be to argue that God did

not intend this day of _rest_ should commence until about twenty-five

hundred years afterwards. (The word Sabbath signifies rest.)

It follows then irresistibly, that the weekly Sabbath was not made for

the Jews only, (but as Jesus says, for 'man') for the Jews had no

existence until more than two thousand years after it was established.

President Humphrey in his essays on the Sabbath says, "That he (God)

instituted it when he rested from all his work, on the _seventh_ day of

the first week, and gave it primarily to our first parents, and through

them to all their posterity; that the observance of it was enjoined upon

the children of Israel soon after they left Egypt, not in the form of a

new enactment, but as an ancient institution which was far from being

forgotten, though it had doubtless been greatly neglected under the

cruel domination of their heathen masters; that it was reenacted with

great pomp and solemnity, and written in stone by the finger of God at

Sinai; that the sacred institution then took the form of a statute, with

explicit prohibitions and requirements, and has never been repealed or

altered since; that it can never expire of itself, because it has no

limitation."

In Deut. vii: 6-8, God gives his reasons for selecting the Jews to keep

his covenant in preference to any other nation; only seventy at

first--x: 22. God calls it his [8]"Sabbath," and refers us right back

to the creation for proof. "For in six days the Lord made heaven and

earth and sea, and all that in them is, and rested on the _seventh_,"

&c. Here then we stand fixed by the immutable law of God, and the word

of Jesus, that "the Sabbath was made for man!" Paul says, "there is no

respect of persons with God." Rom. ii: 11. Isaiah shows us plainly that

the Jew is not the only one to be blessed for keeping the Sabbath. He

says "Blessed is the _man_ (are not the Gentiles men) that keepeth the

Sabbath from polluting it." "Also the sons of the stranger, (who are

these if they are not Gentiles?) every one that keepeth the Sabbath from

polluting it, (does he mean me? yes, every Gentile in the universe, or

else he respects persons) even them will I bring to my holy mountain and

make them joyful in my house of prayer; for my house shall be called an

house of prayer for _all_ people." Isa. lvi: 2, 6, 7. If this promise is

not to the Gentile as well as the Jew, then "_the_ house of prayer for

all people" is no promise to the Gentile.

Now we ask, if God has ever abrogated the law of the Sabbath? If he has

it can easily be found. We undertake to say without fear of

contradiction, he has not made any such record in the bible; but to the

contrary, he calls it a perpetual covenant, a "sign between me and the

children of Israel forever," for the reason that he rested on the

seventh day. Exo. xxxi: 16, 17. Says one, has not the ceremonial law

been annulled and nailed to the cross? Yes, but what of that? Why then

the Sabbath must be abolished, for Paul says so! Where? Why in Cols. 2d

chapter, and xiv. Romans. How can you think that God ever inspired Paul

to say that the _seventh_ day Sabbath was made void or nailed to the

cross at the crucifixion, when he never intended any such change; if he

did, he certainly would have deceived the inhabitants of Jerusalem, in

the promise which he made them about two thousand four hundred and

forty-six years ago! Turn now to Jer. xvii: 25, and tell me if he did

not promise the inhabitants of Jerusalem that their city should remain

forever if they would hallow the Sabbath day. Now suppose the

inhabitants of Jerusalem had entered into this agreement, and entailed

it upon their posterity (because you see it could not have been

fulfilled unless it had continued from generation to generation,) to

keep the Sabbath holy, would not God have been bound to let Jerusalem

remain forever? You say [9]yes. Well, then, I ask you to shew how he

could have kept that promise inviolate if he intended in less than six

hundred and fifty years to change this seventh day Sabbath, and call the

first day of the week the Sabbath, or abolish it altogether? I say,

therefore, if there has been any change one way or the other in the

Sabbath, since that promise, it would be impossible to understand any

other promise in the Bible; how much more reasonable to believe God than

man. If men will allow themselves to believe the monstrous absurdity

that FOREVER, as in this promise, ended at the resurrection, then they

can easily believe that the Sabbath was changed from the _seventh_ to

the first day of the week. Or if they choose the other extreme,

abolished until the people of God should awake to be clothed on with

immortality. Heb. iv: 9.

Now does it not appear plain that the Sabbath is from God, and that it

is coeval and co-extensive (as is the institution of marriage) with the

world. That it is without limitation; that there is not one thus saith

the Lord that it ever was or ever will be abolished, in time or

eternity.--See Exod. xxxi: 16, 17; and Isa. lxvi: 22, 24; Heb. iv: 4, 9.

But let us return and look at the subject as we have commenced in the

light of Paul's argument to the Romans and Collossians, for here is

where all writers on this subject, for the change or the overthrow of

the _seventh_ day Sabbath attempt to draw their strong arguments. The

second question then, is this:

HAS THE SABBATH BEEN ABOLISHED SINCE THE SEVENTH DAY OF CREATION? IF SO,

WHEN, AND WHERE IS THE PROOF?

The text already referred to, is in Rom. xiv: 5, 6.--"One man esteemeth

one day above another; another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man

be persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it

unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day to the Lord, he doth

not regard it." Does the apostle here mean to say, that under the new or

Christian dispensation it is a matter of indifference which day of the

week is kept as a Sabbath, or whether any Sabbath at all is kept? Was

that institution which the people of God had been commanded to call a

delight, the holy of the Lord, honorable, now to be esteemed of so

carnal a nature as to be ranked among [10]the things which Jesus "took

out of the way, nailing it to his cross." If this be true, then has

Jesus, in the same manner, abolished the eight last verses in the

fifty-eighth of Isaiah, and the 2d, 6th and 7th verses of the 56th

chapter have no reference to the Gentile since the crucifixion. O Lord

help us rightly to understand and divide thy word. But is it not evident

from the four first verses in the same chapter of Romans, that Paul is

speaking of feast days; giving them again in substance the decrees which

had been given by the Apostles in their first conference, in A. D. 51,

held at Jerusalem. See Acts xv: 19. James proposes their letter to the

Gentiles should be "that they abstain from pollution of Idols, and from

fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood;" to which the

conference all agreed. Now please read their unanimous _decrees_ (xvi:

4,) from twenty-three to thirty verses. "For it seemed good to the Holy

Ghost and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary

things." "That ye abstain from meats offered to Idols, and from blood,

and from things strangled, and from fornication, from which if ye keep

yourselves ye shall do well." Reading along to the 13th of the next

chapter, we find Paul establishing the Churches with these decrees; (see

4, 5,) and at Philippi he holds his meeting, (not in the Jews Synagogue)

but at the river's side, on the _Sabbath_ day. A little from this it is

said that Paul is in Thesalonica preaching on the Sabbath days. Luke

says this was his _manner_! What was it? Why, to preach on the Sabbath

days, (not 1st days.) Observe here was three Sabbaths in succession.

xvii: 2. A little while from this Paul locates himself in Corinth, and

there preaches to the Jews and Greeks (or Gentiles) a year and six

months _every Sabbath_. Now this must have been seventy-eight in

succession. xviii: 4, 11. Does this look like abolishing the Sabbath

day? Has anything been said about the 1st day yet? No, we shall speak of

that by and by.

Before this he was in Antioch. "And when the Jews were gone out of the

synagogue the GENTILES besought that these words might be preached to

them the next Sabbath. And the next Sabbath day came almost the whole

city together to hear the word of God." xiii: 42, 44. Here is proof that

the Gentiles kept the Sabbath. Now I wish to place the other strong text

which is so strangely adhered to for abolishing or changing this

[11]Sabbath along side of this, that we may understand his meaning.

"Blotting out the hand-writing of ordinances that was against us, which

was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his

cross."

"Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of a

holy day, or of the new moon, or of the Sabbath days." Coll. ii: 14, 16.

Now here is one of the strong arguments adhered to by all those who say

the seventh day Sabbath was abolished at the crucifixion of our Lord;

while on the other hand by the great mass of the Christian world, (so

called,) the seventh day Sabbath ceased here, and in less than

forty-eight hours the change was made to the first day of the week. Now

remember Paul's manner, (before stated) itinerating from city to city

and nation to nation, always preaching to Jews and Gentiles on the

seventh day Sabbath, (for there is no other day called the Lord's

Sabbath in the Bible.) Now if the Apostle did mean to include the

Sabbath of the Lord God with the Jewish feasts and Sabbaths in the text,

then the course he took to do so, was the strangest imaginable. His

_manner_ always was, as recorded, with the exception of one night, to

preach on the very day that he was laboring to abolish. If you will look

at the date in your bibles, you will learn this same apostle had been

laboring in this way as a special messenger to the Gentiles, between

twenty and thirty years since (as you say) the Sabbath was changed or

abolished, and yet never uttered one word with respect to any other day

in the week to be set apart as a holy day or Sabbath. I understand all

the arguments about his laboring in the Jewish Synagogue on their

Sabbath, because they were open for worship on that day, &c., but he did

not always preach in their Synagogues. He says that he preached the

Kingdom of God, and labored in his own hired house for two years. He

also established a daily meeting for disputation in the school of

Tyranus. Acts xix: 9. Again he says, I have "kept _back_ NOTHING that

was PROFITABLE _unto you_. (Now if the Sabbath had been changed or

abolished, would it not have been _profitable_ to have told them so?)

and have taught you publicly, and from house to house." "For I have not

shunned to declare unto you ALL the council of God."--Acts xx: 20, 27.

Then it is clear that he taught them by example that the Sabbath of the

Lord God was not abolished. Luke says it was the _custom_ (or manner) of

Christ [12]to teach in the synagogues on the Sabbath day. iv: 16, 31.

Mark says, "And when the Sabbath day was come he began to teach in their

synagogue." Mark vi: 2.--Now if Jesus was about to abolish or change

this Sabbath, (which belonged to the first code, the moral law, and not

the ceremonial, the second code, which was to be nailed to his cross, or

rather, as said the angel Gabriel to Daniel, ix: 27, "he (Christ) in the

midst of the week shall cause the _sacrifice_ and _oblation_ to cease,"

meaning that the Jewish sacrifices and offerings would cease at his

death.) Jesus did not attend to any of the ceremonies of the Jews except

the passover and the feasts of tabernacles. Why did he say, "Think not I

am come to destroy the _law_ or the prophets? I am not come to destroy

but fulfill. One jot or one title shall in no wise pass from the _law_

'till all be fulfilled." "Whosoever therefore shall break one of these

least commandments" &c. Did he mean the ten commandments? Yes; for he

immediately points out the third, not to take God's name in vain; sixth

and seventh, not to kill nor to commit adultery, and styles them the

_least_. Then the others, which include the fourth, of course were

greater than these. Matt. v: 17, 19, 21, 27, 23, and were not to be

broken nor pass away. Then the Sabbath stands unchanged.

Almost every writer which I have read on the subject of abolishing or

changing the seventh day Sabbath, call it the Jewish Sabbath, hence

their difficulty. How can it be the Jewish Sabbath when it was

established two thousand years before there was a Jew on the face of the

earth, and certainly twenty-five hundred before it was embodied in the

decalogue, or re-enacted and written in stone by the finger of God at

Sinai. God called this HIS _Sabbath_, and Jesus says it was made for

man, (not particularly for the Jews.)

"Well," says one, "what is the meaning of the texts which you have

quoted, where it speaks of Sabbaths?"--Answer: These are the Jewish

Sabbaths! which belong to them as a nation and are connected with their

feasts. God by Hosea makes this distinction, and says, "I will also

cause all _her_ mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons and _her_

Sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts." These then belong to the text

quoted, and not God's Sabbath. Do you ask for the proof? See xxiii

Levit. 4. "_These are the_ FEASTS _of the Lord, which ye shall proclaim

in their [13]seasons_, EVERY THING UPON HIS DAY"--37th v. (May we not

deviate a little? If you do it will be at your peril.) Fifteenth and

sixteenth verses gives them a fifty day's Sabbath; twenty-fourth verse

says: "Speak unto the children of Israel, saying in the seventh month in

the first day of the month, shall ye have a _Sabbath_, a memorial of

blowing of trumpets, an holy convocation."

"Also on the tenth day of the seventh month there shall be a day of

atonement. It shall be unto you a _Sabbath_ of rest." 27, 32.

"Also on the fifteenth day of the seventh month when ye shall have

gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast unto the Lord

seven days. On the first shall be a Sabbath, and on the eighth day shall

be a Sabbath. 39v. And Moses _declared_ unto the children of Israel the

FEASTS of the Lord." 44v. Now here we have FOUR kinds of _Jewish_

Sabbaths, also _called_ "FEASTS _of the Lord_," to be kept annually. The

first fifty days or seven weeks Sabbath ends the third month, seventh.

In three months and twenty-four days more commences the second Sabbath,

seventh month, first; the next, the tenth; the last the fifteenth of the

month. Between the first two Sabbaths there is an interval of one

hundred and twelve days; the next two, ten days, and the next, five

days. Now it can be seen at a glance, that neither of these Sabbaths

could be on the seventh day any oftener than other annual feast could

come on that day. These then are what Hosea calls HER Sabbaths. Paul

calls them HOLY DAYS, _new moons, and Sabbaths_; and this is what they

are stated to be. The first day of the seventh month is a _new moon_

SABBATH, the tenth is a Sabbath of rest and Holy convocation, a day of

atonement, and the fifteenth a feast of Sabbaths. Do you ask for any

more evidence that these are the Jewish Sabbaths, and that God's Sabbath

is separate from them? Read then what God directed Moses to write in the

third verse: "Six days shall work be done, but the _seventh_ day is the

Sabbath of rest, an holy convocation, ye shall do no work therein, it is

the Sabbath of the LORD in all your dwellings." Now Moses has here

declared from the mouth of the Lord, that these are ALL the feast of the

Lord, (there is no more nor less) and every thing is to be upon _his

day_, and he has clearly and definitely separated his Sabbath from the

other four. And in the 28th and 29th chapters of Numbers the sacrifices

[14]and offerings for each of these days are made so plain, beginning

with the Sabbath, 9v, that we have only to read the following to

understand. 26. xxix: 1. First day, seventh month, (new moon;) 7v, 10th

day Sabbath; 12v; 15th day Sabbath, and 35v, 23d day Sabbath. And in the

days of Nehemiah when Ezra had read the law to the people, viii (more

than one thousand years after they were promulgated,) they bound

themselves under an oath "to walk in God's law which was given _by the

hand of Moses_, the servant of God." "And to observe and _do all the

commandments_ of the Lord, our Lord." x: 29. And that there might be no

misunderstanding about the kind of Sabbaths, they say, "If the people

bring ware or any victuals on the Sabbath day to sell, that we would not

buy it of them on the Sabbath or on the holy day," (31v.) but they would

"charge themselves yearly with a third part of a shekel" (to pay for)

"the burnt _offerings_ of the _Sabbaths_, of the _new moons_, for the

_set feasts_," &c. (33v.) for the house of God, including what has

already been set forth in Leviticus and Numbers. Now as their feast days

commenced and ended with a Sabbath, so when their feasts ceased to be

binding on them these Sabbaths must also, and all were "nailed to the

cross." Now I ask if there is one particle of proof that the Sabbath of

the Lord is included in these Sabbaths and feast days? Who then dare

join them together or contradict the Most High God, and call HIS the

_Jewish_ Sabbath. _Theirs_ was nailed to the cross when Jesus died,

while the Lord's is an _everlasting_ sign a _perpetual covenant_. The

Jews, as a nation, broke their covenant. Jesus and his disciples were

one week (the last of the seventy) that is seven years, confirming the

new covenant for another people, the Gentiles. Now I ask if this

changing the subjects from Jew to Gentile made void the commandments and

law of God, or in other words, abolished the fourth commandment; if so,

the other nine are not binding. It cannot be that God ever intended to

mislead his subjects. Let us illustrate this. Suppose that the Congress

of these United States in their present emergency, should promulgate two

separate codes of laws, one to be perpetual, the other temporary, to be

abolished when peace was proclaimed between this country and Mexico. The

time _comes_, the temporary laws are abolished; but strange to hear, a

large portion of the people are now insisting upon it that because peace

is proclaimed that both [15]these codes of laws are forever abolished;

while another class are _strenuously_ insisting that it is only the

_fourth_ law in the perpetual code that's now abolished, with the

temporary and all the rest is still binding. Opposed to all these is a

third class, headed by the ministers and scribes of the nation, who are

writing and preaching from Maine to Florida, insisting upon it without

fear of contradiction, that when peace was proclaimed this fourth law in

the perpetual code was to change its date to another day; gradually,

(while some of them say immediately) and thenceforward become perpetual,

and the other code abolished; and yet not one of these are able to show

from the proceedings of Congress that the least alteration had ever been

made in the perpetual code. Thus, to me, the case stands clear that

neither of the laws or ten commandments in the first code, ever has or

ever can be annulled or changed while mortality is stamped on man, for

the very reason that God's moral law has no limitation. Jesus then

brought in a new covenant, which continued the Sabbath by writing his

law upon their hearts. Paul says "written not with ink, but with the

spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables

of the heart." 2 Cor. iii: 3. And when writing to the Romans he shews

_how_ the Gentiles are a law unto themselves. He says, they "shew the

work of the law written in their hearts, their consciences always

bearing them witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else

excusing one another," (when will this be Paul) "in the day when God

shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel."

ii: 15, 16. How plain that this is all the change. The Jews by nature

had the law given them on tables of stone, while the Gentiles had the

law of commandments written on their hearts. Paul tells the Ephesians

that it was "the law of commandments contained in ordinances," (ii: 15)

not on tables that were nailed to the cross. If the ten commandments,

first written by the finger of God on stone, and then at the second

covenant on fleshy tables of the heart, are shadows, can any one tell

where we shall find the substance? We are answered, in Christ. Well,

hear Isaiah. He says, "that he (Christ) will magnify the law and make it

honorable." lxii: 21. Again, I ask, where was the necessity and of what

use were the ten commandments written on our hearts, if it was not to

render perfect obedience to them. If we do not keep the day God has

sanctified, then [16]we break not the least, but one of the greatest of

his commandments. Still, there are many other texts relating to the law,

presented by the opposite view, to show that the law respecting the

Sabbath is abolished. Let us look at some of them. But it will be

necessary in the first place, to make a clear distinction between what

is commonly called the

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